NoJingoLingo
Banned
- Joined
- Dec 29, 2009
- Messages
- 2,320
- Reaction score
- 325
- Gender
- Undisclosed
- Political Leaning
- Independent
No, not "not really". The answer you can't bring yourself to admit is YES we do limit speech for the common good.Well, not really, but fine, let's go with this.
Your question is invalid. There is no need to list exemptions in this case because corporations are not people.What are all the criteria you think are reasonable exemptions, and how does corporate speech fit into any of them?
There is no such thing as corporate speech. Corporations can't speak. Some person or people in a position to access corporate funds may spend money but money doesn't equal speech, therefore corporations have no speech.
meaningless.Before you answer, I'll tell you what you simply can't do, based on both the logic of freedom of speech and a long history in the courts - you can't base your exemption on simply not liking the content or source of the speech. Which is what you're going to do.
My argument is that corporations are not people and money doesn't equal speech. No need to try and suit up a strawman.You have no argument that doesn't amount to "I think people shouldn't hear certain messages from certain sources/I think speech should be rationed so it's more fair." Both go right to the heart of freedom of speech, and must be rejected.
So by contributing to a politician I'm not voicing my choice?Money isn't speech. Spending money on speech is speech. A political contribution is a contribution, not an expense on speech.
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