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No that's actually not true. It was about personal self defense and then by extension the self defense of freedom by the militia over a potentially tyrannical government. That's what it was referring to and that's why its listed in the bill of rights... which is all about personal rights.
YOU have to take it out of context of that bill and pervert its intent.. ignoring all historical context.. to arrive at the definition that you do.
No - the first half of the Amendment explains the purpose of it and that is fairly clear. Only a single state had the right to bear arms in their state Constitutions that was separate from a community defense purpose and that was Massachusetts. So its clear that the purpose was in keeping with that tradition of community defense and the militia.
It is your side which has to ignore that reality and the historical context to pretend otherwise arriving at the definition that you do.