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Antiquities 18.3.3. "Now there was about this time Jesus, a wise man, if it be lawful to call him a man, for he was a doer of wonderful works, a teacher of such men as receive the truth with pleasure. He drew over to him both many of the Jews, and many of the Gentiles. He was the Christ; and when Pilate, at the suggestion of the principal men amongst us, had condemned him to the cross, those that loved him at the first did not forsake him, for he appeared to them alive again the third day, as the divine prophets had foretold these and ten thousand other wonderful things concerning him; and the tribe of Christians, so named from him, are not extinct to this day."
[/quote]
First of all , almost everyone agrees it is impossible that this is not unaltered. Not even John Meier, who came up with a 'solution' will argue that. IT's just too Christian.
One big problem is that the term 'He was the Christ' was used. The term 'CHrist' comes from "Moishe' in the Hebrew. Jospehus would not use that term for several reasons. First of all, the way he escaped execution when he was captured was by telling Vespisian that HE was going to be the prophized King of the Jews. The audience his writing was intended for was the Romans, and Christ literally means 'annointed' or 'wetter' to be literal. That would not have meaning for his target audience, since they would not understand Jewish custom of annointing high priests and kings with oil. There is also the little business that Jospehus would not use that because it would be going against the narrative he told Vespisian to save his life. That means, at the very least, the passage would have to be modified.
Since it was modified, the next question to ask would be 'Is there any evidence that it was there before the modified passage'. The answer to that is , well, no there isn't. The first external mention of the passage was from Eurisebus. However, Origien, a century earlier, quoted from the passage right by it talking about John the Baptist. Despite the fact Oregin was very particular about trying to use Jospehus to support his claims about Jesus, he never mentioned this passage at all. That is very odd, considering Oriegin's motivations and purposes.
So, we have at the very least a modified passage... and no evidence that it existed before the 4th century at all. Therefore, even if a version did exist, it is so corrupted that we don't know for sure, and it can not be shown with any kind of reasonable evidence that it did indeed exist before the 4th century
First of all , almost everyone agrees it is impossible that this is not unaltered. Not even John Meier, who came up with a 'solution' will argue that. IT's just too Christian.
One big problem is that the term 'He was the Christ' was used. The term 'CHrist' comes from "Moishe' in the Hebrew. Jospehus would not use that term for several reasons. First of all, the way he escaped execution when he was captured was by telling Vespisian that HE was going to be the prophized King of the Jews. The audience his writing was intended for was the Romans, and Christ literally means 'annointed' or 'wetter' to be literal. That would not have meaning for his target audience, since they would not understand Jewish custom of annointing high priests and kings with oil. There is also the little business that Jospehus would not use that because it would be going against the narrative he told Vespisian to save his life. That means, at the very least, the passage would have to be modified.
(continued next messaage)
[/quote]
First of all , almost everyone agrees it is impossible that this is not unaltered. Not even John Meier, who came up with a 'solution' will argue that. IT's just too Christian.
One big problem is that the term 'He was the Christ' was used. The term 'CHrist' comes from "Moishe' in the Hebrew. Jospehus would not use that term for several reasons. First of all, the way he escaped execution when he was captured was by telling Vespisian that HE was going to be the prophized King of the Jews. The audience his writing was intended for was the Romans, and Christ literally means 'annointed' or 'wetter' to be literal. That would not have meaning for his target audience, since they would not understand Jewish custom of annointing high priests and kings with oil. There is also the little business that Jospehus would not use that because it would be going against the narrative he told Vespisian to save his life. That means, at the very least, the passage would have to be modified.
Since it was modified, the next question to ask would be 'Is there any evidence that it was there before the modified passage'. The answer to that is , well, no there isn't. The first external mention of the passage was from Eurisebus. However, Origien, a century earlier, quoted from the passage right by it talking about John the Baptist. Despite the fact Oregin was very particular about trying to use Jospehus to support his claims about Jesus, he never mentioned this passage at all. That is very odd, considering Oriegin's motivations and purposes.
So, we have at the very least a modified passage... and no evidence that it existed before the 4th century at all. Therefore, even if a version did exist, it is so corrupted that we don't know for sure, and it can not be shown with any kind of reasonable evidence that it did indeed exist before the 4th century
Antiquities 18.3.3. "Now there was about this time Jesus, a wise man, if it be lawful to call him a man, for he was a doer of wonderful works, a teacher of such men as receive the truth with pleasure. He drew over to him both many of the Jews, and many of the Gentiles. He was the Christ; and when Pilate, at the suggestion of the principal men amongst us, had condemned him to the cross, those that loved him at the first did not forsake him, for he appeared to them alive again the third day, as the divine prophets had foretold these and ten thousand other wonderful things concerning him; and the tribe of Christians, so named from him, are not extinct to this day."
First of all , almost everyone agrees it is impossible that this is not unaltered. Not even John Meier, who came up with a 'solution' will argue that. IT's just too Christian.
One big problem is that the term 'He was the Christ' was used. The term 'CHrist' comes from "Moishe' in the Hebrew. Jospehus would not use that term for several reasons. First of all, the way he escaped execution when he was captured was by telling Vespisian that HE was going to be the prophized King of the Jews. The audience his writing was intended for was the Romans, and Christ literally means 'annointed' or 'wetter' to be literal. That would not have meaning for his target audience, since they would not understand Jewish custom of annointing high priests and kings with oil. There is also the little business that Jospehus would not use that because it would be going against the narrative he told Vespisian to save his life. That means, at the very least, the passage would have to be modified.
(continued next messaage)