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New World Translation Curiosities... (1 Viewer)

Your source is biased, as well as it lies...it's downright crazy how other organizations think they know what we believe so well...they don't have a clue...

2294f6816316fead0b88aa3d65f0b6fb.jpg

@Alter2Ego


Isn't it odd and ironic, that JW have the gall to say that?



Daisy and Alter2Ego, I do not doubt your faith in GOD, and that in your heart......you believe that you are fighting for Him.
BUT - as shown to you both in many different ways (STRAIGHT FROM THE BIBLE) - JW is a false religion.

As I've said: unfortunately...................you are on the wrong side of the fence.

You have to try to get back on track, and get it right.
You have been deceived.



Romans 16: 17-18


I appeal to you, brothers, to watch out for those who cause divisions and create obstacles contrary to the doctrine that you have been taught; avoid them.
For such persons do not serve our Lord Christ, but their own appetites, and by smooth talk and flattery they deceive the hearts of the naive.
 
Your source is biased, as well as it lies...it's downright crazy how other organizations think they know what we believe so well...they don't have a clue...

2294f6816316fead0b88aa3d65f0b6fb.jpg

@Alter2Ego

Here is JW's twisted version of John 1.




John 1 (New World Translation)
1 
In the beginning was the Word,a and the Word was with God,b and the Word was a god.c







JESUS was a god. Do you have any idea what this means?

It means - you are acknowledging that............
you treat Jesus Christ as another god, and therefore, wilfully practice idolatry.


JW is using Jesus Christ to have its members practice idolatry!
How DIABOLICAL is that?
 
@Alter2Ego

Here is JW's twisted version of John 1.




John 1 (New World Translation)
1 
In the beginning was the Word,a and the Word was with God,b and the Word was a god.c







JESUS was a god. Do you have any idea what this means?

It means - you are acknowledging that............
you treat Jesus Christ as another god, and therefore, wilfully practice idolatry.


JW is using Jesus Christ to have its members practice idolatry!
How DIABOLICAL is that?

Tosca, you hit it with John 1

Jesus isn't 'a god' my friends.........

he is God


that is where the JW crew missed it and lead the sheep astray.

Tosca is very good with this and a blessing on the Forum. she just keep mining scripture correcting this error, thank you Tosca.


here is a good translation, we need to look at that rather than the 'a god'.......


John 1:1 King James Version...

1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.


a christian first needs to understand: who is God, understanding that he is the almighty creator.

he need to be revered and worshipped as your King.

just do that.

and one more thing...........

BE Desperate....






are you desperate? do you understand what the song is about, maybe find out. maybe learn who God is and who you are.

desperate.


.
 

Was the Word “God” or “a god”?

THAT question has to be considered when Bible translators handle the first verse of the Gospel of John. In the New World Translation, the verse is rendered: “In the beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.” (John 1:1) Some other translations render the last part of the verse to convey the thought that the Word was “divine,” or something similar. (A New Translation of the Bible, by James Moffatt; The New English Bible) Many translations, however, render the last part of John 1:1: “And the Word was God.”—The Holy Bible—New International Version; The Jerusalem Bible.

Greek grammar and the context strongly indicate that the New World Translation rendering is correct and that “the Word” should not be identified as the “God” referred to earlier in the verse. Nevertheless, the fact that the Greek language of the first century did not have an indefinite article (“a” or “an”) leaves the matter open to question in some minds. It is for this reason that a Bible translation in a language that was spoken in the earliest centuries of our Common Era is very interesting.

The language is the Sahidic dialect of Coptic. The Coptic language was spoken in Egypt in the centuries immediately following Jesus’ earthly ministry, and the Sahidic dialect was an early literary form of the language. Regarding the earliest Coptic translations of the Bible, The Anchor Bible Dictionary says: “Since the [Septuagint] and the [Christian Greek Scriptures] were being translated into Coptic during the 3d century C.E., the Coptic version is based on [Greek manuscripts] which are significantly older than the vast majority of extant witnesses.”
The Sahidic Coptic text is especially interesting for two reasons. First, as indicated above, it reflects an understanding of Scripture dating from before the fourth century, which was when the Trinity became official doctrine. Second, Coptic grammar is relatively close to English grammar in one important aspect. The earliest translations of the Christian Greek Scriptures were into Syriac, Latin, and Coptic. Syriac and Latin, like the Greek of those days, do not have an indefinite article. Coptic, however, does. Moreover, scholar Thomas O. Lambdin, in his work Introduction to Sahidic Coptic, says: “The use of the Coptic articles, both definite and indefinite, corresponds closely to the use of the articles in English.”

Hence, the Coptic translation supplies interesting evidence as to how John 1:1 would have been understood back then. What do we find? The Sahidic Coptic translation uses an indefinite article with the word “god” in the final part of John 1:1. Thus, when rendered into modern English, the translation reads: “And the Word was a god.” Evidently, those ancient translators realized that John’s words recorded at John 1:1 did not mean that Jesus was to be identified as Almighty God. The Word was a god, not Almighty God.
https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2008812
 
Here is JW's twisted version of John 1.


John 1 (New World Translation)
1 
In the beginning was the Word,a and the Word was with God,b and the Word was a god.c
tosca1:

There are over 50 Bible translations that render John 1:1--at the third independent clause--as "the word was a god," with the word GOD sometimes in upper case. Why? because those 50 plus translators realized--based upon the context--that the Word aka Jesus is a god but he is not Almighty God.

So what are you going to do? claim all 50+ are wrong because they debunk your false claim that Jesus is Almighty God? If that's your position, you've got your work cut out trying to convince anyone that 50+ translators didn't get it right despite the fact the context to John 1:1 clearly indicates that Jesus/the Word is a created being. A created being cannot also be the same God that created him.



Alter2Ego
 
JESUS was a god. Do you have any idea what this means?

It means - you are acknowledging that............
you treat Jesus Christ as another god, and therefore, wilfully practice idolatry.


JW is using Jesus Christ to have its members practice idolatry!
How DIABOLICAL is that?

tosca1:

Acknowledging someone is a god does not equate to worshiping him/her. Satan the devil is identified in the Bible as a god.


"Satan, who is the god of this world, has blinded the minds of those who don’t believe. They are unable to see the glorious light of the Good News. They don’t understand this message about the glory of Christ, who is the exact likeness of God."
(2 Corinthians 4:4 -- New Living Translation)

"In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them." (2 Corinthians 4:4 -- King James Bible)

2 Corinthians 4:4

"among whom the god of this system of things has blinded the minds of the unbelievers, so that the illumination of the glorious good news about the Christ, who is the image of God, might not shine through." (New World Translation by Jehovah's Witnesses)



Are you going to now argue that everyone that acknowledges Satan the Devil as a god (because the Bible says he is) is guilty of, as you put it, "wilfully, practice idolatry"?


Alter2Ego
 
tosca1:

There are over 50 Bible translations that render John 1:1--at the third independent clause--as "the word was a god," with the word GOD sometimes in upper case. Why? because those 50 plus translators realized--based upon the context--that the Word aka Jesus is a god but he is not Almighty God.

So what are you going to do? claim all 50+ are wrong because they debunk your false claim that Jesus is Almighty God? If that's your position, you've got your work cut out trying to convince anyone that 50+ translators didn't get it right despite the fact the context to John 1:1 clearly indicates that Jesus/the Word is a created being. A created being cannot also be the same God that created him.



Alter2Ego


What bibles would they be.....that have the same translation that "The Word was a god?"
Show us which ones.


All reputable Bibles that are used and recommended by scholars have the same translation: The WORD is GOD.




Jesus is ALMIGHTY God.

Thanks to @Revelation for posting Philippians 2 in the other thread:

Philippians 2

9 Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name,
10 so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.



It is a fulfillment of ................



Isaiah 45:23
By myself I have sworn; from my mouth has gone out in righteousness a word that shall not return: ‘To me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear allegiance.’




All knees - including the ones in HEAVEN - will kneel before Jesus!
Lol - I'm sure God did not mean He's abdicating from his throne as Almighty God!

When all the prophesies are fulfilled - it will be known to all creation that JESUS IS GOD HIMSELF!




What does it mean and when will it happen that every knee shall bow?


The main thrust of the overall passage is that God is the only one who can save His people, as opposed to the idols that are worshiped by the nations.
God is God and there is no other (Isaiah 45:5–6, 18, 22). Those who turn from their idols will be saved. Those who do not will be ashamed.

The bottom line is that, before God, every knee shall bow and every tongue swear allegiance to God.





Sorry, Alter......but you so lack credibility since you've ignored and ran away from my questions that challenged this very issue.
You can't pick and choose what
rebuttal questions to answer in a serious, mature discussion.



 
Last edited:

Was the Word “God” or “a god”?

THAT question has to be considered when Bible translators handle the first verse of the Gospel of John. In the New World Translation, the verse is rendered: “In the beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.” (John 1:1) Some other translations render the last part of the verse to convey the thought that the Word was “divine,” or something similar. (A New Translation of the Bible, by James Moffatt; The New English Bible) Many translations, however, render the last part of John 1:1: “And the Word was God.”—The Holy Bible—New International Version; The Jerusalem Bible.

Greek grammar and the context strongly indicate that the New World Translation rendering is correct and that “the Word” should not be identified as the “God” referred to earlier in the verse. Nevertheless, the fact that the Greek language of the first century did not have an indefinite article (“a” or “an”) leaves the matter open to question in some minds. It is for this reason that a Bible translation in a language that was spoken in the earliest centuries of our Common Era is very interesting.

The language is the Sahidic dialect of Coptic. The Coptic language was spoken in Egypt in the centuries immediately following Jesus’ earthly ministry, and the Sahidic dialect was an early literary form of the language. Regarding the earliest Coptic translations of the Bible, The Anchor Bible Dictionary says: “Since the [Septuagint] and the [Christian Greek Scriptures] were being translated into Coptic during the 3d century C.E., the Coptic version is based on [Greek manuscripts] which are significantly older than the vast majority of extant witnesses.”
The Sahidic Coptic text is especially interesting for two reasons. First, as indicated above, it reflects an understanding of Scripture dating from before the fourth century, which was when the Trinity became official doctrine. Second, Coptic grammar is relatively close to English grammar in one important aspect. The earliest translations of the Christian Greek Scriptures were into Syriac, Latin, and Coptic. Syriac and Latin, like the Greek of those days, do not have an indefinite article. Coptic, however, does. Moreover, scholar Thomas O. Lambdin, in his work Introduction to Sahidic Coptic, says: “The use of the Coptic articles, both definite and indefinite, corresponds closely to the use of the articles in English.”

Hence, the Coptic translation supplies interesting evidence as to how John 1:1 would have been understood back then. What do we find? The Sahidic Coptic translation uses an indefinite article with the word “god” in the final part of John 1:1. Thus, when rendered into modern English, the translation reads: “And the Word was a god.” Evidently, those ancient translators realized that John’s words recorded at John 1:1 did not mean that Jesus was to be identified as Almighty God. The Word was a god, not Almighty God.
https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/2008812
Thanks for supporting my point about how translations change the meaning of biblical text.
 
Thanks for supporting my point about how translations change the meaning of biblical text.
Yes, there are some terribly inaccurate translations out there...

What is the most accurate translation of John 1:1?
John L. McKenzie (Catholic Biblical scholar) wrote that ho Theos is God the Father, and adds that John 1:1 should be translated "the word was with the God [=the Father], and the word was a divine being."
Google
 
Yes, there are some terribly inaccurate translations out there...

What is the most accurate translation of John 1:1?
John L. McKenzie (Catholic Biblical scholar) wrote that ho Theos is God the Father, and adds that John 1:1 should be translated "the word was with the God [=the Father], and the word was a divine being."
Google
 
I'm not familiar with the New World Translation. Let's look at a few sample verses.
John 3:16 (NWT)
"For God loved the world so much that he gave his only-begotten Son, so that everyone exercising faith in him might not be destroyed but have everlasting life."
John 3:16 (KJV) For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him
Should not perish, but have everlasting life.
The choice of "exercising faith" as opposed to simply "believing".

Parker_Chess:

The expression "exercising faith," as presented in the New World Translation (published by Jehovah's people), is accurate. Simply claiming to "believe in Jesus" while not producing actions to prove it won't save anyone from destruction.

I've talked to dozens of people who claim they believe in Jesus. However, their lifestyle choices show they're not interested in Jesus' teachings and the examples he provided for those who call themselves his followers. In other words, they are not exercising faith in Jesus.


Alter2Ego
 

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