Pi and square root of 2 are basically the same thing as they can't be fully expressed through numbers.
Either your thought processes or your English are so poor that you cannot
express yourself clearly. I suspect there's an element of both. Is English not
your first language?
Root 2 and pi are completely different numbers. Perhaps all you are trying to
say is that they are both irrationals?
You are correct - I didn't notice my typo. pi to base pi is 10.
Pi can't be expressed as a fraction.
Actually it can be expressed as a continued fraction (
Pi - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia.
It can also be trivially expressed as (2*pi)/2, which is a fraction. What you
are groping towards is that pi is irrational: it cannot be expressed as the
quotient of two integers.
...And your comparing a number that can be expressed in a fraction to a number that can not.
What is wrong with that? 13/3 is greater than pi. There, I've done it.
Its to bad your unable to figure out the statement of what I said to be true.
Even that sentence is difficult to interpret.
Now follow closely to see if you can understand...
I shall follow very closely.
If the big bang happened (or other events) and there was an infinite amount of matter.
To start with, that's not a sentence.
I think you are trying to say: "Assume the big bang happened and that there
was an infinite amount of matter."
OK. I can assume that.
Then there would always be an infinite amount of matter taking up space since an infinite amount of matter can't be divided to become less dense in to a finite amount of matter.
I cannot understand what you mean by "less dense in to a finite amount of
matter". All you seem to be saying here is that "as we assumed an infinite
amount of matter, we must have an infinite amount of matter". What has
density to do with it?
There would never be a time at which an infinite amount of matter would cease to become infinite and become a finite value.
I think you meant "be" instead of "become". That's the same thing as the
previous statement: "we assumed an infinite amount of matter; we still have
an infinite amount of matter."
You can't take finite amounts of matter out from an infinite amount of matter.
Why not? I could use a teaspoon. I would then still have the infinite amount
of matter, but also the piece I took (in the teaspoon). Don't forget, infinity
isn't a number.
This is because an infinite amount of matter has to be infinitely dense, otherwise it would not be infinite.
In an infinite volume, an infinite mass would have indeterminate density
(mass/volume), not infinite density. It's easy to see it doesn't have to have
infinite density. Consider an infinite chess board. One corner is here and the
sides stretch off forever. I tell you there two grains of sand on each black
square and nothing on the white squares. That's an infinite amount of sand.
The density is 1 grain per square. A finite density.
Your telling me that there is nothing that prevents an infinite amount
of matter within an infinite universe?
No. I'm telling you that I know of nothing that prevents this.
How would density be defined (as a finite value)?
Density is defined as mass divided by volume.
Why do we have matter spread out?
I have no idea what you are getting at here.
How would the universe be created? Without a beginning?
I don't know. If the universe has no beginning, it wasn't created.
pontaneously appearing with an infinite amount of space and matter?
If it is infinite, it never "appeared".
The amount of space a certain amount of matter takes up.
That's density. Now please explain what you mean by "amount of density"
as distinct from "density". How can you have an amount of density?
If there was a finite amount of matter within an infinite amount of space then there would be no density of matter taking up that space.
Overall, yes. A finite amount of matter in an infinite space would have a
density of zero. In the locality of the matter, the density would not be zero.
But why a certain amount? Why did a certain amount of matter come out from the big bang instead of another amount?
Because if a different amount had been involved we would observe that
different amount, and you would be asking why that amount and not
something different.
This is also an event with appears to have a beginning.
By definition, an event divides time into before and after, therefore an event
has a beginning. Your point is what?
How do we even know if not multiple big bangs happened? People assume just one happened.
We don't even know if one happened; it is currently really only a hypothesis.
No "people" do not; some may, but some think there may have been multiple
bangs.
No events at present or in the finite past would be caused by events without a beginning.
Why not?
I think people are just jumping to conclusions about what really happened to the first events that caused what we observe today.
You are immediately jumping to the conclusion that there was a first event.