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There are two previous threads posted before this one. I highly recommend you read them so we don't derail this one. Or, at least, be aware of what they are about.
One is about the grammatical structure of the 2nd A
debatepolitics.com
The other is about the meaning of the idiom ".... to keep and bear arms"
debatepolitics.com
If your comments are about either of those topics, I would be very grateful if you would post them in the proper thread.
First of all, let me explain what my argument is NOT.
1- It is NOT that our forefathers did not value people owning firearms. They did! It has nothing to do with any of these threads.
2- It is NOT that the 2nd A limits the right to own weapons. That is not my point. My point is, as you will see, that it doesn't address the matter.
3- It is NOT that an individual right to own arms doesn't exist. It does! At least for now. But that's thanks to the Heller decision. Not to the 2nd A as written. It was legislation passed by Scalia., but that will also be a different topic.
4- It is NOT whether or not this individual "right" should exist. Full disclosure: personally I do believe it shouldn't. But that's not what this thread is about.
5- It is also NOT about who was part of the well-regulated militia mentioned in the 2nd A This will be the main point of the next thread. But not this one. Hint: regardless of what some of you might have heard, it was definitely NOT "everybody".
There is one simple fact: during the debates about the 2nd A, there was a lot of debate about militias. But basically (other than what I mention a few lines down) no mention of an individual right to own weapons. It was just... not an issue. People owned guns, like they owned a shirt, a house or a horse. It was just another piece of property. Owning guns was not a controversial issue at the time. Our forefathers probably felt no need to address it in the Bill of Rights.
But very little mention of an individual right to own weapons were in the discussions about the 2nd A. And in the few instances when there was, it was quickly dismissed. For instance, the minority anti-Federalists of Pennsylvania wanted to include "... for the defense of themselves and their own state, or for the purpose of killing game; and no law shall be passed for disarming the people or any of them, unless for crimes committed, or real danger of public injury from individuals."
It was not only voted down, it was ridiculed. During the debates, Noah Webster asked sarcastically why not add “...that Congress shall never restrain any inhabitant of America from eating and drinking, at seasonable times, or prevent his lying on his left side, in a long winter’s night, or even on his back, when he is fatigued by lying on his right.”
Most of the framers didn't trust a standing army to defend us. So our "army" were the militias. Our nations depended on the militias for our national defense. But they also feared that the states would neglect the militias. So clearly the 2nd A was meant to protect the right of the people to form part of the militias. Which meant that the main purpose of the 2nd A was to RESTRICT the ability of state governments to neglect their militias. This, unlike some right to own weapons (which was never mentioned), was the main theme in the debates.
Bottom line: an individual right to own weapons was simply not addressed in the 2nd A . It wasn't in the debates in Congress, it wasn't mentioned (other than explained above), it simply wasn't an issue they paid ANY attention to. They didn't feel the need.
So the question is: how could anybody assume that the framers intended the 2nd A to protect gun ownership if they never even MENTIONED gun ownership?
Here is the Historian's Amicus brief, where all this was addressed:
https://www.nraila.org/heller/conamicusbriefs/07-290_amicus_historians.pdf
One is about the grammatical structure of the 2nd A
English 101 For Gun Advocates.
I wrote a series of posts a long time ago for another site, hoping to get serious posters to comment on the facts here included. This is the first in the series. I would like to try it on this one. The SCOTUS Heller decision is the Law of the Land. However, it uses linguistic and historical...

The other is about the meaning of the idiom ".... to keep and bear arms"
English 102: "... to keep and bear arms"
Every time one talks about the 2nd A, people start debating if it's an individual or a collective or a civil right. BTW, one day I might open a thread explaining why I think it's neither an individual or a collective right. But this is not it. Because I think it's not as relevant a debate as...

If your comments are about either of those topics, I would be very grateful if you would post them in the proper thread.
First of all, let me explain what my argument is NOT.
1- It is NOT that our forefathers did not value people owning firearms. They did! It has nothing to do with any of these threads.
2- It is NOT that the 2nd A limits the right to own weapons. That is not my point. My point is, as you will see, that it doesn't address the matter.
3- It is NOT that an individual right to own arms doesn't exist. It does! At least for now. But that's thanks to the Heller decision. Not to the 2nd A as written. It was legislation passed by Scalia., but that will also be a different topic.
4- It is NOT whether or not this individual "right" should exist. Full disclosure: personally I do believe it shouldn't. But that's not what this thread is about.
5- It is also NOT about who was part of the well-regulated militia mentioned in the 2nd A This will be the main point of the next thread. But not this one. Hint: regardless of what some of you might have heard, it was definitely NOT "everybody".
There is one simple fact: during the debates about the 2nd A, there was a lot of debate about militias. But basically (other than what I mention a few lines down) no mention of an individual right to own weapons. It was just... not an issue. People owned guns, like they owned a shirt, a house or a horse. It was just another piece of property. Owning guns was not a controversial issue at the time. Our forefathers probably felt no need to address it in the Bill of Rights.
But very little mention of an individual right to own weapons were in the discussions about the 2nd A. And in the few instances when there was, it was quickly dismissed. For instance, the minority anti-Federalists of Pennsylvania wanted to include "... for the defense of themselves and their own state, or for the purpose of killing game; and no law shall be passed for disarming the people or any of them, unless for crimes committed, or real danger of public injury from individuals."
It was not only voted down, it was ridiculed. During the debates, Noah Webster asked sarcastically why not add “...that Congress shall never restrain any inhabitant of America from eating and drinking, at seasonable times, or prevent his lying on his left side, in a long winter’s night, or even on his back, when he is fatigued by lying on his right.”
Most of the framers didn't trust a standing army to defend us. So our "army" were the militias. Our nations depended on the militias for our national defense. But they also feared that the states would neglect the militias. So clearly the 2nd A was meant to protect the right of the people to form part of the militias. Which meant that the main purpose of the 2nd A was to RESTRICT the ability of state governments to neglect their militias. This, unlike some right to own weapons (which was never mentioned), was the main theme in the debates.
Bottom line: an individual right to own weapons was simply not addressed in the 2nd A . It wasn't in the debates in Congress, it wasn't mentioned (other than explained above), it simply wasn't an issue they paid ANY attention to. They didn't feel the need.
So the question is: how could anybody assume that the framers intended the 2nd A to protect gun ownership if they never even MENTIONED gun ownership?
Here is the Historian's Amicus brief, where all this was addressed:
https://www.nraila.org/heller/conamicusbriefs/07-290_amicus_historians.pdf