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{continued from prior message}
Felicity quoted: "If two philosophies are compared to facts, and one is a better "fit" than the other, should the one that doesn't fit be tossed out?"
--and wrote: "Sure--and "scientifically," mine is a better "fit" because mine is rooted in the biological FACT of the identifiable DNA of the species and yours is rooted in the arbitrary VALUE of a particular LEVEL of function of that biological entity."
FALSE, TWICE, because we are discussing personhood which is NOT rooted in the DNA, and IS a.consequence of an entity's manifested abilities. Also, there is NOTHING arbitrary about MEASUREMENTS of has-ability or hasn't-ability.
Felicity also wrote: "Mine is either you are a member of a species that has a nature that can be classed as persons--or you are not--the DNA reveals the evidence.
YOURS IS FUNDAMENTALLY ILLOGICAL, as described above. Species CANNOT be measured.
Felicity also wrote: "Yours must rely on arbitrarily determining the level of functioning that demonstrates what is or is not a person--and all you have to determine that level is your own subjective judgment."
Well, in one sense ALL classifications are abitrary/subjective, simply because certain measurments are always arbitrarily/subjectively chosen to specify a classification. However, "arbitrary" is bad only when there is disagreement about what the measurements should be. But in the case of IDENTIFYING whether or not personhood is part of a random newly-encountered organism, WE ARE AGREED on the things to seek/measure, like a "rational will". That is the essence of a STANDARD, not arbitrariness. Let us be careful about using "arbitrary", therefore. What you wrote is WRONG because we WON'T "arbitrarily determine the level of functioning"; we will be making measurements relative to and in light of that STANDARD. Which is why I wrote above, "there is nothing arbitrary about measurements of has-ability or hasn't-ability".
Felicity also wrote: "Mine is a better fit because it can be consistently tested and determined through observation."
It is true that DNA can be consistently tested and observed. You have an excellent method for identifying humans, but NOT for identifying persons. Especially not for identifying nonhuman persons.
Felicity also wrote: "Yours allows for myriad interpretation that can shift due to circumstances and whim and personal agenda."
FALSE. The measureable characteristics that allow individuals to be classed as persons MUST BE MINIMAL, TO DISTINGUISH PERSONS FROM ORDINARY ANIMALS. ***EXACTLY*** like the characteristics that classify humans must also be minimal. Then they cannot be changed easily at all! If the Nazis had tried to do THAT to the Jews ("you have to have six-fingered hands to be human"), the Nazis ALSO would have then failed the classification! It is only when a long list of traits is required, for something to fit into a particular classification, that what you wrote is possible. I have no reason to do such a thing for personhood, and neither do you (especially since you are trying to include more individuals as persons than I!). I dare say we actually have pretty much the same list, EXCEPT for the measurement-of-individuals thing. And our debate there has already been detailed above, including why individuals MUST be measured; THERE IS NO AVOIDING MEASURING INDIVIDUALS. Why do you even try?
Felicity quoted: "[Aristotle's philosophy] has no explanation for 50,000+ years of human history in which no trace of personhood's symbol-abstraction can be detected."
--and wrote: "Assuming those facts are true...it negates NOTHING."
I was talking about a "better fit", not a negation.
--and wrote: "Perhaps humans weren't people until a certain point in time..."
That is a logical possibility. But the thing I was getting at, that you seemed to have missed, is that we are talking about ANATOMICALLY MODERN humans. That means their DNA was essentially the same as ours. You put great store in associating DNA with personhood, but this data BREAKS that association. Remember the "feral child" argument that you dismissed? THE DATA is that ALL humans were feral for 50,000+ years, simply because none were exposed to person-development situations! Or, none were exposed ENOUGH. It could simply be that about 50,000 years ago, enough complexity in human interactions had finally ACCUMULATED in tribal groups over the generations (an evolutionary sort of thing), that some of the youngest generation began crossing the threshhold from feral to person. Why not?
Felicity also wrote: "okay...we are NOW!"
Yup, human interactions have become even more complex in those last 50,000 years, plenty to stimulate feral children (I hear that "The Terrible Twos" is the technically/politically correct description
into achieving personhood. DNA is NOT the key; developed mental ability is the key. PERIOD.
Felicity also wrote: "And ALL of us are now because our species has within its capacity a rational will."
NOT. As already explained, all individuals of a species do not suddenly acquire something that some individuals are measured to possess.
Felicity also wrote: "(However...science revises it's findings on the origin of man regularly as new information surfaces)"
True. But in this case I think you will find that archeologists have LOOKED for earlier and earlier evidence of symbol-abstraction. Remember that we know anatomically modern humans have been walking around for 100,000+ years because we found places where humans inhabited, that long ago. They left lots of simple Stone Age artifacts. But none of those sites, older than roughly 50,000 years, includes any artifacts indicative of symbol-abstraction. It could be that they will find an "oldest" site where symbols were used, and it may push back the start-date a few thousand years. But it can practically be PROVED that they won't ever find something a lot older. Remember MODERN history, in which waves of humanity spread across vast stretches of the globe at walking speed? Symbol-abstraction gives a major advantage to human tribes that have it over those that don't. THEY would have conquered the world 100,000 years ago, if they had existed that long ago. And their artifacts would have existed, too (100,000 years is nothing to an incised fired-clay bowl). The Evidence is that they conquered the world about 50,000 years ago, and not much earlier than that.
Felicity quoted: "If two philosophies are compared to facts, and one is a better "fit" than the other, should the one that doesn't fit be tossed out?"
--and wrote: "Sure--and "scientifically," mine is a better "fit" because mine is rooted in the biological FACT of the identifiable DNA of the species and yours is rooted in the arbitrary VALUE of a particular LEVEL of function of that biological entity."
FALSE, TWICE, because we are discussing personhood which is NOT rooted in the DNA, and IS a.consequence of an entity's manifested abilities. Also, there is NOTHING arbitrary about MEASUREMENTS of has-ability or hasn't-ability.
Felicity also wrote: "Mine is either you are a member of a species that has a nature that can be classed as persons--or you are not--the DNA reveals the evidence.
YOURS IS FUNDAMENTALLY ILLOGICAL, as described above. Species CANNOT be measured.
Felicity also wrote: "Yours must rely on arbitrarily determining the level of functioning that demonstrates what is or is not a person--and all you have to determine that level is your own subjective judgment."
Well, in one sense ALL classifications are abitrary/subjective, simply because certain measurments are always arbitrarily/subjectively chosen to specify a classification. However, "arbitrary" is bad only when there is disagreement about what the measurements should be. But in the case of IDENTIFYING whether or not personhood is part of a random newly-encountered organism, WE ARE AGREED on the things to seek/measure, like a "rational will". That is the essence of a STANDARD, not arbitrariness. Let us be careful about using "arbitrary", therefore. What you wrote is WRONG because we WON'T "arbitrarily determine the level of functioning"; we will be making measurements relative to and in light of that STANDARD. Which is why I wrote above, "there is nothing arbitrary about measurements of has-ability or hasn't-ability".
Felicity also wrote: "Mine is a better fit because it can be consistently tested and determined through observation."
It is true that DNA can be consistently tested and observed. You have an excellent method for identifying humans, but NOT for identifying persons. Especially not for identifying nonhuman persons.
Felicity also wrote: "Yours allows for myriad interpretation that can shift due to circumstances and whim and personal agenda."
FALSE. The measureable characteristics that allow individuals to be classed as persons MUST BE MINIMAL, TO DISTINGUISH PERSONS FROM ORDINARY ANIMALS. ***EXACTLY*** like the characteristics that classify humans must also be minimal. Then they cannot be changed easily at all! If the Nazis had tried to do THAT to the Jews ("you have to have six-fingered hands to be human"), the Nazis ALSO would have then failed the classification! It is only when a long list of traits is required, for something to fit into a particular classification, that what you wrote is possible. I have no reason to do such a thing for personhood, and neither do you (especially since you are trying to include more individuals as persons than I!). I dare say we actually have pretty much the same list, EXCEPT for the measurement-of-individuals thing. And our debate there has already been detailed above, including why individuals MUST be measured; THERE IS NO AVOIDING MEASURING INDIVIDUALS. Why do you even try?
Felicity quoted: "[Aristotle's philosophy] has no explanation for 50,000+ years of human history in which no trace of personhood's symbol-abstraction can be detected."
--and wrote: "Assuming those facts are true...it negates NOTHING."
I was talking about a "better fit", not a negation.
--and wrote: "Perhaps humans weren't people until a certain point in time..."
That is a logical possibility. But the thing I was getting at, that you seemed to have missed, is that we are talking about ANATOMICALLY MODERN humans. That means their DNA was essentially the same as ours. You put great store in associating DNA with personhood, but this data BREAKS that association. Remember the "feral child" argument that you dismissed? THE DATA is that ALL humans were feral for 50,000+ years, simply because none were exposed to person-development situations! Or, none were exposed ENOUGH. It could simply be that about 50,000 years ago, enough complexity in human interactions had finally ACCUMULATED in tribal groups over the generations (an evolutionary sort of thing), that some of the youngest generation began crossing the threshhold from feral to person. Why not?
Felicity also wrote: "okay...we are NOW!"
Yup, human interactions have become even more complex in those last 50,000 years, plenty to stimulate feral children (I hear that "The Terrible Twos" is the technically/politically correct description

Felicity also wrote: "And ALL of us are now because our species has within its capacity a rational will."
NOT. As already explained, all individuals of a species do not suddenly acquire something that some individuals are measured to possess.
Felicity also wrote: "(However...science revises it's findings on the origin of man regularly as new information surfaces)"
True. But in this case I think you will find that archeologists have LOOKED for earlier and earlier evidence of symbol-abstraction. Remember that we know anatomically modern humans have been walking around for 100,000+ years because we found places where humans inhabited, that long ago. They left lots of simple Stone Age artifacts. But none of those sites, older than roughly 50,000 years, includes any artifacts indicative of symbol-abstraction. It could be that they will find an "oldest" site where symbols were used, and it may push back the start-date a few thousand years. But it can practically be PROVED that they won't ever find something a lot older. Remember MODERN history, in which waves of humanity spread across vast stretches of the globe at walking speed? Symbol-abstraction gives a major advantage to human tribes that have it over those that don't. THEY would have conquered the world 100,000 years ago, if they had existed that long ago. And their artifacts would have existed, too (100,000 years is nothing to an incised fired-clay bowl). The Evidence is that they conquered the world about 50,000 years ago, and not much earlier than that.