Well, technically the Constitution once did contain sections allowing States with Slavery certain rights to do so (see Article IV Section 2 paragraph 3); to count Slaves as three-fifths of a person for Taxation and Representation (see Article I, Section 2 Paragraph 3).
However, while the 13th Amendment generally abolished slavery it still allowed "
involuntary servitude, ...
as a punishment for crime whereof the party shall have been duly convicted." That permitted prison labor (chain gangs), and still allows prisons to compel inmates to work.
en.wikipedia.org
So, even today the answer is "yes, under certain specific circumstances."
Of course, despite the OP's "forget the fetus for a moment" attempt to pretend this poll isn't really about abortion rights,
it is leading to the argument that pregnancy is a form of bondage.
It is disingenuous to argue that the natural process whereby ALL human beings come into existence (including the mothers and fathers of every "inseminated ova") somehow equates to "allowing someone else to use your body."
As if it is in fact "slavery" rather than an amazing biological mechanism which led to human existence itself, which is a false equivalence.
So to answer the actual underlying point;
no, getting pregnant and carrying a child to term is not "allowing someone else to use your body." That is like stating everyone who can read this response exists as the result of "enslaving their mother's body."