Trip
Spectemur Agendo
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then i will ask you THEN , show me where the founders state a federal bill of rights ..that [a federal document].....is needed to protect rights of the people from the states....before the civil war when did our federal constitution speak to the states?
#1 The Founders were FOUNDING the federal government, NOT THE STATES! They would not have been making statements ABOUT THE STATES! The States already existed before the Constitution, and the Founders, as colonies, and they were "self-governed" and generally by the people themselves. You ignore this fact in making a claim that the "the Bill of Rights" only applied to the federal government, which is true, but pretend that suddenly "rights" themselves have no bearing on state governments, which is entirely UNTRUE!
#2 The very idea that "rights" do not pertain to the state governments is ludicrous. The state constitutions all have references to rights, and have all been founded on individual rights, and obligations since colonies, and the application of common law. THe general problem with "Rights" historically, is that the federal governments, like Kings, have assumed themselves free of obligation to observe the rights of these citizens, that they were answerable to the local governments and the citizenry themselves.
#3 This is why the states are recognized to be sovereign, and their authorities cannot be taken by the federal government. However individual "rights" are not any authority of the federal government but of the people themselves. Those individual "rights" do not flow from the Bill of Rights in the Constitution, but from the unalienable individual rights that are innate to each individual, and do not come from the government NOR ANY CONSTITUTION (Reference the Declaration of Independence)! For you to pretend that Rights are not applicable to the States, you have to ENTIRELY SUBVERT THE FOUNDERS view of Rights, as well as every philosopher to precede them and the Constitution.
It is not as if Rights were not denied by states, to claim such, again is ridiculous. In fact slavery was instituted into law, not by the federal government, but rather by States, and the dictatorial corruption of state judiciaries transferring temporary indentured servitude into perpetual servitude.
you make think it non sen-sense its not, what powers are given under article 1 section 8 to the congress OVER the people?
It is absolutely nonsense! It is blithering idiocy to imagine that rights do not apply to states, because if the states are free to take our rights away, either by majority dictate (democracy), or by rule of the few government elites (oligarchy), then our rights have no meaning!
If we have no right to freedoms of religion, speech, assembly, property, or to arms because the States can dictate these rights away, then it really does not matter about the federal government's prohibitions to act against freedom of religion, speech, assembly, property, or to keep and bear arms.
The Bill of Rights would be entirely IRRELEVANT, because we already would not have those rights!
Make no mistake, the Statist-globalists recognize this ignorance of not only the people, but also the corruption some of the Court decisions, and the fully intend to institute the denial of property, and property rights, via those local governments, and local dictates. This is the entirely the method of corruption employed by the U.N. assautl upon tis country of Agenda 21/Sustainable Development.
Source: "America's Choice: Freedom or Sustainable Development".
where is the authority in the u.s. constitution for its courts, for controversies between american citizens and the untied states?
You're straying FAR from our discussion, in trying to alienate rights from the federal government, and wrongly asserting that rights are the same as judicial authority between citizens and the federal government. Elsewhere in other threads in which you've participated, we've already established the authority of "judicial review" so I'm not going to assert that authority here.
these things are what Madison and Hamilton looked at, no delegated powers of congress or of the courts over individual citizens.......if the federal government has no authority over american citizens, why is a bill of rights needed?
the founders are arguing over the federal government and its powers, they are not arguing over the powers of the states, ......these men in the constitutional conventions are members of a state governments, are they going to argue, they need limits on their very own state government,............with a federal document?
The bolded text above is precisely my own argument!
Yet you are taking the fact of the "Bill of Rights" is not written to be applicable to the States (because that document is focused on constituting the federal government), and misconstruing this as the fact that the States themselves do not have to observe individual rights, which is not only ludicrous, but extremely dangerous in destroying rights having any meaning whatsoever!
rights are individual rights, that is why america has a republican government, and not a democratic one....which is why Madison is stating about the senate being in state hands and not in the peoples hands, becuase when the people have power they act as a collective body.
the house is a collective body by it very nature, becuase it is a democracy, the senate was in state hands and is a aristocracy, and becuase it is, it tempers the collective body of the house from passing laws based on the whims of the people, and Madison is stating in federalist 63
"The true distinction between these and the American governments, lies in the total exclusion of the people, in their collective capacity, from any share in the latter, and not in the total exclusion of the representatives of the people from the administration of the former"
We are not a Republic just because of recognition of Rights, but are a Republic, and specifically a Constitutional Republic, because the authority of government is limited to certain enumerated powers by the Constitution, and not expanded by any democratic populous desire. The limitations of those enumerated powers, comes from the protection of individual rights, which is PRECISELY WHY the Founders viewed it would be unnecessary, and even "dangerous" to include a Bill of Rights - those rights are already incorporated throughout the Constitution by limiting government action.
In fact this is precisely the point Madison is making in your quotation from Federalist #63. You cut off the fact that Madison is comparing ancient societies based on populist majority influence, which are his referenced "these", specifically, "... the principle of representation was neither unknown to the ancients ". Our form of government, the latter, "totally excludes" the people from having any influence in any collective capacity - i.e. majority populist desire has no effect upon what government might legitimately do.
No the House is not any more a collective body, nor "Democratic" simply because its members are provided by populist vote, than was the Senate when members were chosen by the State legislatures.
states are not denying people rights, unless you look at slaves and they were concerned property., states have constitutions with a bill of rights themselves, and they must follow the constitution of their state and secure the rights of the people, per their own constitution.
do you see this what i have posted many times?:
This is precisely our disagreement! The States have Constitutions of their own, but they are not making up their own rights from a separate pool of rights, entirely separate from the pool of rights that the Bill of Rights drew from! No, they are not, and asserting they are is not just ridiculous, but destructive, and involves a corrupt belief that "rights" can be made up by whatever government, to whatever purpose, when this is not the case at all.
In fact I have shown Jefferson himself indicated that the right of of freedom of religion applies to the States as well, despite the state of Connecticut having no such assurance prohibiting the institution of a state religion, in this post HERE.
States have historically denied people all sorts of rights - to property, to freedom of religion, to the right to keep and bear arms, and much more! In fact the federal government's recognition of the only right from the Bill of Rights that is NOT applicable to the States themselves is the 2nd Amendment Right to keep and bear arms. Yet the Supreme Court has not indicated any reason why this right to keep and bear arms would not be applied to the States, and yet the Founders themselves are quite vocal in the fact that the right to keep and bear arms, is unalienable, and cannot be denied at all, not even by the States!
"THE Conventions of a number of the States, having at the time of their adopting the Constitution, expressed a desire, in order to prevent misconstruction or abuse of its powers, that further declaratory and restrictive clauses should be added: And as extending the ground of public confidence in the Government, will best ensure the beneficent ends of its institution.
TRANSLATION,: the states after adopting the constitution expressed a desire to prevent the misconstruction, and abuses of its constitutional powers, that declaratory and restrictive clauses be added, so it will give the states and the public, confidence in the new Government, will best ensure the beneficent ends of its institution.
That's true, but nowhere among the legitimate Powers of the States is there any authority to deny rights, and property.
If the States might deny rights, then the recognition of the Declaration of Independence that shook the world, of rights being unalienable, would be rendered invalid, and the DOI would no longer be the Organic Law of this country.
We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights, that among these are Life, Liberty and the pursuit of Happiness.
That to secure these rights, Governments are instituted among Men, deriving their just powers from the consent of the governed,
That to secure these rights, Governments are instituted among Men, deriving their just powers from the consent of the governed,
Nowhere does the DOI indicate that "rights" are just for the federal government to recognize, but rather governments, and whatever "form of government". Contrary to your implication, sovereign states are a form of government. Your interpretation guts the DOI and makes "rights" themselves entirely worthless. You have single-handedy (though not alone in this) managed to make the sacrifice of every American to given their life for this country, a pointless gesture for rights able to be taken and denied by any one of the States.
As a result, frankly, I cannot begin to phrase how deeply I resent your corrupted view of this country and our freedoms.
John Adams wrote in 1806: "I once thought our Constitution was quasi or mixed government, but they (Republicans) have now made it, to all intents and purposes, in virtue, in spirit, and in effect, a democracy. We are left without resources but in our prayers and tears, and have nothing that we can do or say, but the Lord have mercy on us."
Youve continually employed this indication from Adams entirely out of Context. While the Executive may resemble a monarch, he does not have the powers of a monarch. And while the House may resemble a democracy in being popularly elected, and in that "democratic", the authority of the house is not at all derived from populist majority opinion.
We are not a democracy, and deliberately not such. We do not in truth and actual operation have any sort of "mixed" government, but only in superficial appearance.
Madison wrote an amendment to the Constitution, which would have given national sovereignty to the federal government over the states...it was rejected by the states.
Madision did not write an amendment. What Madison arrived at the Constitutional Convention with was his own Virginia Plan, and upon this plan the debates at that Convention were begun. That Virginia Plan was based on the entire transfer of sovereignty from the states, to the federal government. The entirety of the Virginia Plan was rejected by every other member at the Constitutional Convention. Madison can truly be said to be the only statist at that Constitutional Convention, not really a federalist at all, and while he is rewarded with the honorific of "Father of the Constitution", it is an honorific entirely undeserved.
you are acting towards me like haymarket,.......... which you insist I must prove to you that the bill of rights, are not meant for the states, yet you have not given me any evidence where the founders [members of state governments] wanted a federal bill to apply to them.
No, you're acting like that person ... by ignoring what is being said to your argument, and then .
I ADMIT on my own that the "Bill of Rights" is written entirely to be applicable to the Federal government.
What I reject is the insipid flaw of logic, and gross corruption, that those "rights" (not the "Bill of Rights" itself) do not apply to the States themselves, when every writing of the founders upon those rights, inclusive of the Declaration of Independence, indicate that they do.
The Bill of Rights, is NOT any sort of "federal bill" in so far as at it being a law provided by the federal government; it is not any sort of proposed law made by the federal government. But rather that it is a BILL (not federal) in so far as being a "listing of particulars", in this case "rights", that is being applied to the federal government.
Bill, noun
1: an itemized list or a statement of particulars (as a list of materials or of members of a ship's crew)
This definition not only is in agreement with the Bill of Rights in the U.S. Constitution, but also with the historic recognition of "Bills of Rights" prior to this country.
Evidently a part of your trouble in misunderstanding this, and rights overall, involves your confusion of a "bill" being a proposed law by Congress, with a "Bill of Rights" actually being a listing of particulars.
The Bill of Rights is NOT any sort of "federal" bill, although it is applied in the Constitution to the federal government.
The "rights" recognized in the Constitution are not provided from, nor a grant by, nor created by that actual "Bill of Rights" itself, which only recognizes those Rights themselves that exist appart from that Constitution, inherent to each individual, and as such are as equally applicable to the States as they are the Federal government.
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