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(Most of this is just questions - I'm hoping someone can shed some light...)
I read the transcript and I just don't see where the impeachable offense is. Biden is guilty because he's on video bragging about doing the same thing that they are trying to impeach Trump for. The difference is Biden did it to keep his son from being investigated for corruption, while Trump did it to probe the related corruption that Biden himself has already admitted to. So what if it is his opponent in the upcoming election? I don't get this thing where suddenly it's a crime to find dirt on an opponent instead of the dirt of the opponent being the crime. How does this make any sense?
We exchange information with foreign intelligence all the time. So, obviously, why is it okay for Biden to do what he did for nefarious reasons but "impeachable" for the President to do what he did. Shouldn't he have the right to show that they are guilty of the same thing he is being accused of? He asked the President of another country if he had any information about corruption against the US that took place in that country. Isn't that what he's supposed to do? Isn't it within the parameters of his job as President to make inquiries to whomever he pleases, if necessary, especially since his own intelligence agencies are plotting against him?
I read the transcript and I just don't see where the impeachable offense is. Biden is guilty because he's on video bragging about doing the same thing that they are trying to impeach Trump for. The difference is Biden did it to keep his son from being investigated for corruption, while Trump did it to probe the related corruption that Biden himself has already admitted to. So what if it is his opponent in the upcoming election? I don't get this thing where suddenly it's a crime to find dirt on an opponent instead of the dirt of the opponent being the crime. How does this make any sense?
We exchange information with foreign intelligence all the time. So, obviously, why is it okay for Biden to do what he did for nefarious reasons but "impeachable" for the President to do what he did. Shouldn't he have the right to show that they are guilty of the same thing he is being accused of? He asked the President of another country if he had any information about corruption against the US that took place in that country. Isn't that what he's supposed to do? Isn't it within the parameters of his job as President to make inquiries to whomever he pleases, if necessary, especially since his own intelligence agencies are plotting against him?