You are comparing apples with oranges.
No I am not... I am using YOUR logic.
Your logic based on what you have said.. you said that because when Californians paid their state taxes.. they could deduct that expense on their federal taxes.. it meant that the federal government was paying those taxes.. and subsidizing California.
IF you are consistent in your logic.. then because I can deduct business expenses from my federal taxes.. it means that if I expand my business and deduct that expense from my federal government.. it means according to you.. that the government paid for that expansion.
So is that what you think?
Because you can't have it both ways logically.. You cannot say that because I pay my state taxes..and get to deduct it from my federal taxes.. it means that the federal government is paying those taxes..
And NOT say that when I expand my business and can deduct that expense on my federal taxes it doesn't mean that the federal government is paying for that expansion.
There simply isn't any way around it.
So which is it Moderate?