Think about your argument for a second. If I go from being in the poorest half of the country to being in the richest half, does that mean that the poorest half has one fewer person?
lets start with what I wasn't arguing, just to get rid of some of the detritus that has accumulated.
no, the OP is not about 'social mobility', which is complex phenomenon that may but does not necessarily include and is certainly NOT restricted to economic mobility. And i was not arguing specifically about economic mobility but attempting to dispell the myth of the availablilty of UPWARD economic mobility to everyone. but, i will return to that later.
the chart you provided has no provenance. i CANNOT argue it as i cannot judge its validity or determine what point the creator of the chart was attempting to make. A bit of information helps, though - the little note that tells me its creator 'adapted' the data from another report, which report i have located. The report was directed at comparing economic mobility of men to that of women - a specialty of the author. nevertheless, it contains valid data from which your chart was constructed:
ok... let's back up. the statement that 60% of poor people move up the economic ladder is absurd not in that it is 'false' but because it is imcomplete without "the middle class has no better a chance of moving UP then they did of moving DOWN."
per the same report:
The least amount of mobility exists for those whose parents are found in the lowest and highest income quartiles
this is NOT incidental. a little thinking will expose the reason - those two quartiles are closed at one end where the middle quartiles are open ended - you cannot move UP outta the top or DOWN outta the bottom. there are several interesting aspects that derive from this fact. I will come bacl to this.
another quote from the report:
the extent of upward and downward mobility is remarkably constant. Twenty-five to 29% of sons move up or down one quartile from that of their parents.
UP OR DOWN. this is the point.
The report by the Economic Mobility Project shows a rise among the poorest 20% of 9%, among the richest 20%, of 69%.
percent, not number, but percent. the divisions are defined by percentages, not dollar amounts and certainly not as REAL wealth. so. a man who made 3 million when the upper quintile ranges from 2.5m to zillions is in the upper quintile. If next year , because the economy has been doing so swell (at least for rich folk) the bottom of the upper quintile moves to 5m, our fella moves down even though he is still making the same amount of money. poor him, eh?
the same thing happens at the bottom. the economy sucks, the top of the lower quintile falls and the fella making 18k moves UP. THe change in income of more than a few in the top or bottom can have a cascading effect that seems to shift economic mobility across the entire spectrum.
baloney, you say? well, let us refer to the same report, the report from which YOU got your 60% figure ( i apologize that I cannot quote from it... it is in format that i cannot copy).
remember that 25-29 percent mobility? that was between quintiles. actual income mobility? was virtually none, changes in overall wealth simply redefines the quintiles. THIS is why the disparity in wealth and income is important to our discussion. as the number of REAL (as opposed to percentile) low income people increases, they redefine the lower quintile... and the one above... and the one above.... in each, individuals whose income has not changed move UP (statistically). Inflation and increase cost of living, though, make them poorer in fact.
and concentration matters too... a FEW whose income increase do NOT change the quintile definition. that 1% at the very top? They increased income 176% (according to the same report). the effect? little or no change in the number of persons in the quintile, but an enoormous change in the amount of money in that quintile... and a corresponing change in the amount of wealth in the others because the wealth is fixed - if it appears here, it came from somewhere else. so.... a lot of people lose some degree of wealth but as a result in the percentile shift downward, may in fact appear to be moving up.
again, UP or DOWN... the actual merits of the number of folks moving UP can only be properly gauged in light of the number moving down. when the number moving up across the spectrum is significantly greater than that moving down, "improvement" is illusory... all we are seeing is a shift in the levels. which is why your 60% is meaningless with the the qualifier "
the statement "The median household was no more upwardly mobile in 2003-04, a year when GDP grew strongly, than it was it was during the recession of 1990-91." should have greater meaning, now. more wealth being generated BUT NO CHANGE in economic mobility.
so, you can see how folks on either side of the border experiencing changes in income along with movement of the line dividing the quintiles can produce unreliable results if you do not look at all the relevant data.
again, if you had 60% of the poor people moving out of poverty without a (roughly) corresponding number moving into poverty, poverty would end in a very few generations, rather than increase... as it has.
but... as i say, that was NOT the point of the OP. I will return later with a post that IS the point of the OP.
geo.