Scucca, this seems to be your argument:
The argument is as follows. More restrictive policies on abortion, whilst having no significant effect on sexual activity, are associated with only a marginal reduction in abortion rates. This suggests that there is an upturn in unwanted births. This, in turn, increases the likelihood of child maltreatment and therefore child fatalities.
The empirical evidence supports this hypothesis. Whilst it cannot be used to discount the pro-life morality coercion, it does have repercussions for policy making once abortions have been allowed. Restrictive policies (e.g. "restrictions on publicly funded abortions, mandatory waiting periods, and parental involvement laws") should be avoided. Liberalism minimises child abuse and neglect.
You seem to be saying that there is a link between restrictive abortion policies and child fatalities. Since, due to publication restrictions, you are unable to link to the study, which I understand, I would like you to provide the following information, so I can examine the results:
null hypothesis and alternate hypothesis
T-Score analysis and/or Z-Score analysis
level of standard deviations/statistic significance used for the study (.05, .025, etc...)
confounding variables identified and how their impact was negated or accounted for
Level of causality
Also, in your first paragraph, you show a progression: more restrictive abortion laws ---> increased unwanted births ---> increases
likelihood of child maltreatment ---> increase of child fatalities. It is the progression from step 2 to step 3 that I would like to see evidence of. Is this included in the study, and does the study show that this hypothesis has been accepted and a causational relationship was proven with the statistical significance noted in the tests that I requested above? Or are the steps I identified, solely your own opinion?
I think a key factor, here, is that whether this study shows causation (very valid) or correlation (usable as a tool, but less valid).
Also, I wonder, what was the rationale behind separating whites and blacks?
And as a precursor, I have a few issues with the study, just from the abstract:
1) Data was used from 1981-2002. Roe v. Wade was in 1973. The 1973-1981 data was not obtained. One must wonder if there was any increase right after abortion was legalized, what the restrictions in that early time were, and how the data from these years compared to the data from later years. This could identify some of the confounding variables, which could be more prominent in later years.
2) Data from prior to 1973 would need to be examined to further eliminate the impact of confounding variables. If the hypothesis holds true, child fatalities should have
dropped dramatically, after abortion legalization, since this would be analogous to loosening abortion restrictions. I would be curious as to whether the study addresses this, as it is a major confound.
3) The study uses the 0-4 age group. Obviously, this omits those children over the age of 4. Though this may be a minor issue, it reduces the population size.
4) The abstract mentions "
young, single, and low socioeconomic-status mothers". Is this the study focus? One problem I see with this, immediately, is that research shows that children of single parents,
statistically do worse than those in two parent households,
regardless of other factors. This would negate the causational effect of abortion restrictions on single-parent-child-outcomes, or, at the least, reduce its significance, greatly.
That's all I can see just from the abstract. I await data on the study's research.