Which is why I figure someone will sue as it is unconstitutional. They are interfering in the election of board officials.
Your opinion is duly noted.
Nothing to do with my argument. I can argue that they are not allowed to interfere with stockholder elections. There is a good founding principle for it as well.
One can "argue" almost anything one wants to "argue". The state government has the power to "regulate the conduct" of companies within its jurisdiction. There is a good founding principle for THAT as well.
There is a reason that we have limited clauses written into the constitution. it is to stop government overreach such as this.
No, it's to parcel out which areas the several governments are allowed to "overreach" in. If the "regulation of corporate behaviour within the boundaries of a state" is NOT a federal power, then it is a state power. That means that the federal constitution doesn't apply and only the state constitution is relevant.
You do know what the meaning of the word "who" is, don't you?
Using your definition of "who" then every election in the United States of America prior to the granting of the "right" to vote to women was "unconstitutional" since only men were eligible to run for public office and that means that the laws interfered with "who" people could elect.
many companies have multiple corporate offices, but are headquartered elsewhere.
Quite a few.
That, however, does not mean that the companies have their "Head Offices" in all of the states in which they operate. And that means that they do not have a "Board of Governors" located in all of the states in which they operate.
There is a significant legal difference between:
- a "national" company that is "doing business" in a state;
- a company that "has a presence" in a state;
- a company that "operates" in a state; and
- a company that "does business" in a state.
These are usually regional offices that allow for quicker action for a region.
Yep, and they are all governed by employees who are governed by the policies and directives of a Board of Governors located elsewhere.
Yet the actual headquarters could be in a different state.
In which case the California state law would have absolutely no force or effect.
An arguable position. I'm not saying that it MIGHT not prevail. Equally the view that "regulating the conduct of California companies" falls within the legislative competence of the government of California MIGHT not prevail.
I know which way I'd bet.
again it is the stock holders that determine the board of directors.
No one is saying that it isn't.
so there you have it.
YOu can't force stock holders to vote for a women and telling them that they have to is a violation of their free speech rights as well.
The stock holders would be prefectly at liberty to leave the ballot portion listing the female candidates blank.
Tell me, in the states which DO NOT make provision for "write in" candidates, are their elections "unconstitutional" because that is a "violation of (the voters') free speech rights"?
Tell me, in the states which require a certain minimum number of "nominators" before a person's name can be placed on the ballot "unconstitutional" because that is a "violation of (the voters') free speech rights"?