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Of course. They do so through governments, state structures, and voting, assuming they live in a democracy.
If the courts based their decision based on legal precedence that overrules local ordinance, then yes. However I'm sure that's not what you mean/what and have a very specific and narrow interpretation you'd like to present otherwise.
If the courts force it, despite the democratic process not wanting it, you're fine with that?
Have you ever heard of Prop 187?
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/California_Proposition_187