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Americans should be forced to purchase inferior goods at higher prices.
Agree or disagree?
How would anyone force them to purchase inferior goods to begin with? At gunpoint? :roll:
Through tariffs, quotas, agricultural subsidies, and various other protectionist nonsense.
Through tariffs, quotas, agricultural subsidies, and various other protectionist nonsense.
Through tariffs, quotas, agricultural subsidies, and various other protectionist nonsense.
You think Cubans would be cheaper than the third world sweatshop labor we already rely on? I doubt it.Because imagine how much money we could save if only we would allow manufactures to exploit illegals and starving North Koreans, Cubans and other people living in brutal dictatorships with dirt cheap wages.
That would be a huge increase in expenditures over the current slaves.The slaves wouldn't technically be working for free I am sure the companies would give them decent food,clothes,roof over their head and perhaps some medical care as well.
Define "inferior"
But of course, they're still not forced to purchase anything, they can simply not buy it.
So again, I ask, how are Americans being FORCED (your word) to purchase inferior goods?
You also forgot laws that bar US employers from hiring illegals and trade barriers against certain countries ran by brutal dictatorships and laws that bar slavery.
jamesrage said:Because imagine how much money we could save if only we would allow manufactures to exploit illegals and starving North Koreans, Cubans and other people living in brutal dictatorships with dirt cheap wages.We let companies go to China,why should Cuba,North Korea or any other similar places be different?
jamesrage said:I bet if slavery was legal I bet those businesses would pass the savings onto the consumer instead of pocketing the extra profit margin. The slaves wouldn't technically be working for free I am sure the companies would give them decent food,clothes,roof over their head and perhaps some medical care as well.
Well, it wasn't MY word as it isn't my thread...
It's more accurate to say that they're unable to purchase the best product at a competitive price...which really amounts to the same thing.
But BOTH cars will get you to work, so how is either of them inferior? One is a luxury car, the other is a more than adequate functional car.In plain economic terms:
"Normal goods" are goods which people buy more of when their income is higher or increasing.
"Inferior goods" are goods which people buy more of when income is lower or decreasing.
For example, if a normal good were to be a Lamborghini, an inferior good would be a Hyundai.
In response to the question I would say no, because demand for inferior goods would go down, and then someone on some end loses something.
In the context he's referencing, he's using "inferior" as synonymous with "substitute", articulating a set of buying preferences that render a Hyundai an imperfect substitute good for the Ferrari.But BOTH cars will get you to work, so how is either of them inferior? One is a luxury car, the other is a more than adequate functional car.
But BOTH cars will get you to work, so how is either of them inferior? One is a luxury car, the other is a more than adequate functional car.
In the context he's referencing, he's using "inferior" as synonymous with "substitute", articulating a set of buying preferences that render a Hyundai an imperfect substitute good for the Ferrari.
Extending the reasoning you apply above, you might consider the Hyundai to be a perfect substitute good to the Ferrari.
substitute goods definition
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