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Awaiting the Supreme Court's gay marriage decisions [W:641]

Separate but equal. Why are men's and women's restrooms separate because that means that men and women aren't equal. You're not following the bouncing ball here. Separation does not prove inequality.

every time you bring this up it shows you clearly do not understand rights, laws and freedoms and nobody honest and educated on the matter falls for it, its laughable for you to think this has any meaningles

also not all restrooms are separate lol

peeping tom is breaking the law and infringe on the rights of others, your example fails
 

shhhhhhhhh dont use common sense and facts when they are just gonna be ignored
 

The fact is that humanity is starting to overthrow the oppressive weight of religion and religion is the only reason that the 1 male + 1 female model has persisted. In most countries where religiousity is falling, gay marriage is being legalized. This is a good thing. Religion is failing, reality is prevailing. That's as it should be.
 

If that was true, then the 1 man and 1 woman model of marriage would only be found in cultures that have a strong religious framework and the fact is that 1 man and 1 woman has been pretty standard for virtually every culture, religious or not. Picts, Celts, Native Americans, Eskimos, Asians, Budhists, Hindus, Mayans...

There is no creature that mates for life that pairs for life in a homosexual bond. That probably has something to do with the reason why male and female has been the standard pairing for our species, too.
 

Again, what if he claims he's a woman trapped in a man's body. Where's the sympathy? Where's the love, my brutha?
 
Nope. Prop 8 was a state constitution issue. If the gays are going to win this fight they are going to have to do it state by state.

That's fine, they're already doing it and after this decision, there's no doubt that the other dominos will fall into place relatively quickly.
 

Um... you don't think any of those groups were religious? Buddhism and Hinduism *ARE* religions. :roll:
 
Again, what if he claims he's a woman trapped in a man's body. Where's the sympathy? Where's the love, my brutha?

sympathy has nothing to do with it lol. Rights and laws. nice deflection but its another failure
 
shhhhhhhhh dont use common sense and facts when they are just gonna be ignored

I know...it just always amazes me how many people on these political message boards don't understand the basics of Constitutional analysis.
 
Nope. Prop 8 was a state constitution issue. If the gays are going to win this fight they are going to have to do it state by state.

That's not what the court said at all. The court simply said that the proponents of prop 8 didn't have standing to bring the challenge.

As for your state by state claim.....do the basic math. In the Doma decision there are 5 (FIVE) justices saying that while states are free to define marriage, they must do so in a manner that does not violate 5th Amendment equal protection. Kennedy even indicated that there is no legitimate state interest in defining marriage for "straights only". In other words, they are signaling that they are prepared to strike down a "straight only" state law when a case is brought to them. Did you even take a look at Scalia's vitriolic dissent? He pretty much came right out and said the writing in on the wall...the days of straights only marriage are numbered.
 

We now know... as you have been told repeatedly, that this is inaccurate. DOMA was found unconstitutional based on the exact reasons that people have refuted your position with: it violates state's rights issues on regulating marriage. It is good to see that the correct decision was rendered.
 

Procreation is not a requirement for marriage. You can be infertile and marry and you can choose to not have children and marry. The procreation argument is irrelevant.

Marriage is promoted for the rearing of children... and we know through research that children do just as well with gay parents as they do with straight ones.

Your position is refuted and irrelevant.


Completely irrelevant since procreation is not required for marriage AS YOU JUST SAID. How offspring are produced is irrelevant, as one does not have to be married to produce offspring. How they are RAISED is relevant, and since we know that children are reared as well with gay parents as with straight parents, your position is refuted.


Since procreation is not a requirement for marriage, AS YOU HAVE SAID, your point is refuted and irrelevant.

If homosexual unions do have children, it is only as a result of broken biological and social ties, thus making recognition of these homosexual unions contrary to the interest of society.

1) Incorrect. There are many ways for homosexual unions to have children.
2) Since we know that children, overall, do better in a loving 2 parent household, regardless of the sexual orientation of the parents, having them in a healthy two parents household, where the parents are gay is better for them then for them to be in a single parent household. Research proves this.

Therefore, it is in the interest of society for SSM unions to be legal. Your position is refuted.
 

Wrong. Reproduction has zero to do with the state's interest. The state's interest is in rearing children successfully. This is why the government is so involved in adoption and education... and child protection, but not involved in sex or procreation. And since we know that gays rear parents as well as straights, it's benefit to society gives the government reason to sanction it. Your position is refuted.
 

SCOTUS's decision demonstrates adherence to the Constitution along with process for society. Our society has been saved from death by stagnation.
 

This false assertion of yours has been corrected many times. Procreation is irrelevant. Child rearing IS relevant. Gays do this as well as straights. Your position is refuted.
 

And since it is proven that children ADOPTED by gays do as well as those ADOPTED by straights, you are incorrect and your position is refuted.
 

What it demonstrates is that the definition of the word marriage did not meet the criteria to be considered a definition. It has now be corrected.
 

Once you include couples who are infertile in your description and condemnation, you have a point. Until then, you don't. And... since we know that procreation is not a requirement for marriage, your point is refuted, anyway.
 
Facts proving they are not the same ...


Without any claim of my being Carnac the Magnificent, I can say with absolute certainty that you yourself are the product of a heterosexual relationship, and not at all the product of a gay union.

Which is irrelevant as to whether his parents were married. Your point is refuted.

Either that makes me absolutely clairvoyant, or I am relying on real, hard facts that have been around for a long, long time, and aren't about to change.

Actually, it makes what you said meaningless to the argument.
 

Actually it is an appeal to tradition logical fallacy. Here's the fallacy:

Argumentum ad antiquitatem (the argument to antiquity or tradition). This is the familiar argument that some policy, behavior, or practice is right or acceptable because "it's always been done that way."

Therefore, claiming that traditional marriage is right because it's always been that way is an appeal to tradition logical fallacy.

And so you are aware, the biology of procreation is different than the act of marriage. We are discussing the latter, not the former.
 
That's nonsense. We legislate based on tradition regularly and it ranges from Christmas being a national holiday to summer vacation for kiddies.

Legislating on tradition is not the issue. Claiming that something is right because it's always been that way is the fallacy.


What exceptional circumstances?
 

You still have a problem with "lies", using it in a manner few adults actually would, and undoubtedly stemming from your problematic recognition of fact. Your failure to recognize Fact, does not constitute my own lie.

2) The statements I've made in other posts, or in other threads, are entirely irrelevant to what I said in that specific post in response to you, which is gave you a direct link to post #770, the relevant post, where I did my Carnac routine, stated noting whatsoever about people coming from heterosexual relationships.. The fact is your claim is wrong and irrelevant to my post.


3.) 100% false

No, its not 100% false. It is, in fact, 100% correct. Each and every person is the result of heterosexual relationships, even those that are using in vitro fertilization, are relying on heterosexual reproduction, a sperm and an egg, and that is heterosexually based, with the egg/ovum being called in ancient Greek, gamete γαμετή for "wife" , the sperm being recognized by the term "gametes", ancient Greek gametes γαμέτης for "husband". There's no getting around the fact, and you're wrong.


4.) see 3

See above.


5.) yep as proven in 1 your opinion is meanignless its not need, facts prove you wrong again
also as already mentioned somewhere early in this thread the bolded is 100% false

You haven't proven a thing, except your penchant to offer your own unfounded ramblings as truth, and your failed understanding to accuse lying.


6.) you can double down on this if you like but it already lost and was proven false

As shown in the link #770 above, I was referencing heterosexual relationships, not marriage, which shows your statement wrong, and your claim that I lost wrong.


I AGAIN ask you "do you have anything thats on topic to legal marriage and matters to the topic? anything?

Yes, and I want to thank you for proving, through your ignorance, the the definition and recognition of marriage comes form the fact that people can procreate outside of marriage, or any relationship at all, and this is why societies the world over, throughout mankind's history, have invariably recognized marriage to be a man and woman.

You can keep trying to spin, but your misrepresentations of fact, and this conversation, won't change either.
 

This is false. Every single person is not the result of a heterosexual "relationship". Many people are the result of an opposite sex booty call. Some are the result of some sperm being donated to a woman for her to get pregnant by. Some are the result of a rape. Some are the result of an egg being donated for use in conjunction with sperm and a surrogate mother in order to make a baby. "Relationship" generally implies much more than any of these things.

And none of this has anything to do with marriage. Children are not required for marriage. And blood relation is not required to raise a child well.
 

You should actually go read and understand the majority opinion before you pontificate on it.

DOMA was said in that majority opinion to be unconstituti0onal specifically because of a deprivation of equal liberty under the Due Process clause of 5th Amendment.

The only reference to states rights was the right of states to define the law under state sovereignty, which in fact was nowhere denied by DOMA, with the 10th Amendment "states rights" nowhere being cited as the principle for the holding.

Quotes from Kennedy's decision:
"Although Congress has great authority to design laws to fit its own conception of sound national policy, it cannot deny the liberty protected by the Due Process Clause of the Fifth Amendment."

"DOMA's principal effect is to identify a subset of state-sanctioned marriages and make them unequal. The principal purpose is to impose inequality, not for other reasons like governmental efficiency. Responsibilities, as well as rights, enhance the dignity and integrity of the person. And DOMA contrives to deprive some couples married under the laws of their State, but not other couples, of both rights and responsibilities."​

The references above, and throughout the ruling, presumes same sex couples to be the equivalent of marriage, and ignores that the federal government's compelled recognition of same sex marriage forces other states to recognize that fabricated definition of marriage. That first quote actually shows that presumption of equality in its statement, while denying the intent and authority of Congress, presuming instead a unilateral right to redefine a word by the states. Strangely the same crew has disregarded the lack of authority of Congress to dictate health care, and that same States Rights, and the rights of the citizens therein, to not have their health care dictated.


In short, the majority opinion does nothing but presume what it wants to conclude, and uses states rights only to justify that redefinition of marriage by the state, which DOMA never denied. But the decision then compels that recognition of the state's definition, not by any states right to compel other states and the federal government to recognize that redefinition, which is your mistaken claim, but by the presumption of that false equivalence made by that state being valid outside the state, and under the Constitution, and then applies the 5th Amendment due process to reach its preordained conclusion, in disregard of the Constitution's intent and the fact of terminology.

The court sidesteps and ignores the entire interest of the Congress in making Doma, inclusive of a majority of Democrats in both houses, to prevent the abuse of the Full Faith and Credit clause, and prohibit any corrupt compulsion put on the other states by the whim of a few. This was nothing but an example of the corruption of the judiciary, and willingness to engage dictation and legislation from the bench, which is what Scalia and others recognized in their scathing dissent.

We are no longer a Republic ruled by law, but an aristocracy ruled by men.

And I'm done responding to you, as your behavior has shown a repeated lack of character, and abuse of your position in order to get an upper hand by inappropriate means. Your repetition of the same arguments and distortions of fact, converting the fact of reproduction originating from heterosexual relationship, into a compulsion to have children, which nowhere is relevant, and reversing cause and effect, have already been dealt with and were gutted elsewhere, hence your need to resort to abuse of position.
 
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Uh, that "opposite sex booty call" is still heterosexual reproduction, and the term "relationship" does not necessitate nor imply any sort of ongoing relationship between people, but references the ongoing and immutable relation of the sperm and ovum necessary for reproduction, to those two heterosexual sexes.

Likewise, artificial insemination and in vitro fertilization also rely on that same heterosexual reproduction process, and rape as well.

Again, and quite obviously, the reference to "relationship" does not refer to any ongoing relationship between partners, much less a stable one, but the relationship of the reproduction process to that heterosexuality... and it really is an inane claim that it might be.
 
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