Is Arabic derived from Hebrew?
Not on this planet.
There's no written evidence of proto-Indo-European (PIE) but we know it existed from cognates.
Anyone who understands linguistics knows the third part of Grimm’s Law is that PIE voiced aspirate stops, bh, dh, gh, and ghw, became simple voiced stops, b, d, g, and gw or w. For example, “brother” is
bhrata in Sanskrit, in Greek,
phrater, and Latin, f
rater, which corresponds to Gothic (Scandinavian)
bropthar and English brother.
The same is true for proto-Semitic. There are cognates in all the Semitic languages. Ashurbanipal makes a rather strange statement. He says he was taught the read the language that existed before the Deluge and that might very well have been pro-Sumerian or proto-Semitic. It's too bad Yahweh doesn't actually exist or the morons who translate the King Joke Vision would actually translate that Sumerian-Akkadian word as "deluge" instead of incorrectly translating it as flood.
Most people don't think so but I believe proto-Sumerian incorporates ideograms from proto-Semitic.
97000-7000 BCE Archaic Sumerian
3500 BCE Akkadian which is actually Semitic splits off from Sumerian
3200-2500 BCE Eblaite exists as a short-lived bridge between East/West Semitic
2800 BCE Amorite (West Semitic) splits off from Akkadian (now East Semitic)
2000 BCE Amorite (the people morons call "Babylonians") splits into South Semitic (Arabic and Ethiopian) and Northwest Semitic (Aramaic)
1800 BCE Canaanite language diverges from Aramaic
1500 BCE Ugaritic, Phoenician and Punic emerge as dialects of Canaanite
1200 BCE Proto-Hebrew emerges from Ugaritic as a sub-dialect
900 BCE Hebrew emerges as a language in its own right after the destruction of Ugarit by the Sea Peoples. It is differentiated by the loss of case endings used in Aramaic languages (ie Vocative, Locative, Dative, Genitive, Accusative, Nominative etc and please don’t tell me I have to give a 9th grade grammar lesson on cases).
While the Exodus never happened because the Hebrews always lived in Canaan from the southern border of Ugarit to just south of Jerusalem they did come under Egyptian suzerainty after the destruction of Ugarit and Egypt is other only language in the region that does not use case endings. You can infer from that the Hebrews did a lot of commerce with the Egyptians and/or Egyptian administrators were running the local governments.
The other major influence on Classical Biblical Hebrew was the destruction of Assyria. Refugees come pouring into Jerusalem which was a backwoods podunk town of a whole 12 acres of land and it suddenly grew into a city of 150 acres in about 2 decades. You can read Finklestein and Silberman who discuss that in detail.
Anyway, Arabic split off and differentiate long before Classical Biblical Hebrew existed.
