Did I ever say it was? I think you've inferred that from me making a simple distinction between objective facts and make believe. I never claimed predictions of the future were objective facts. I believe the more we know about a thing the more we are likely to accurately predict outcomes involving that thing but predictions are inherently probabilistic.
You claimed to only believe in empirically deducible evidences and now you're claiming that is not the case. Which is it?
What? My question was rhetorical. I know that you're the one who said predictability by definition was not knowledge unless made with 100 % certainty. That's your standard. That's not my standard of knowledge.
Well we seem to be having a hard time nailing down how it is you even go about
knowing something, so I'd say my confusion is justified.
Funny because ita the first I'm hearing of it.
Probably because you've never engaged in higher order thinking about the assumptions you make on first principles.
'Eternal' in a temporal sense is not the same as 'infinite' in a spatial sense, which is what I took your 'infinite universe' to mean.
I didn't. Do I not count as part of everybody?
I mean if you'd like to tell the scientific community that inductive reasoning isn't the bedrock of the scientific method then you can feel free to do that. You may get laughed at.
Scientific confidence is born out of objective observations. We believe things about gravity because of our observations but that confidence is expressed in probability that science doesn't shy away from. It is this elasticity to change that keeps it from being the perpetual failure that religion is as it tries to wrestle certainty from what may be an inherently uncertain universe.
I'm not sure how chaotic physical laws are a defeater for a religious worldview.
And like I've said, 'objective observations' is a claim which is first of all kind of incoherent (objective to who?) and second, includes a hefty amount of metaphysical baggage. You haven't really demonstrated why your (or anyone's) observations are objective.
Again, whos doing so? I listen to Sean Carroll pretty frequently and he makes it pretty clear that to him the universe is a lot bigger than what we observe that things could be drastically different in the places we can't observe. That's a pretty prominent physicist admitting to ignorance about the things we can't observe or have yet to observe.
Why are we talking about possible laws we haven't seen in possible places we don't know exist? I'm referring to the laws we do observe.
If the past cannot be observed, then empirical evidence alone isn't sufficient because the scientific method relies uniformity in nature to reach conclusions. Research David Hume's (an atheist) problem of induction to understand this, but here's a summary:
Induction is the practice of believing any regularity we observe will continue. So, the sun will come up tomorrow, because it always has, objects will fall towards the earth, etc. The only way to justify believing the future will be like the past, is that in the past, it's worked like that. That's circular reasoning.
The empirical tradition does not permit viscous circular reasoning. So, although Hume thinks induction works, he admits there is no logical reason it should. Why does past experience give any ability to reason about the future?