Why is that? It seems an entirely natural progression to move from opposing rigid gender
roles and discrimination in 'second wave' feminism, to questioning rigid gender boundaries entirely in the 'third wave.' Even between the 60s and 90s, developments such as ongoing population growth, advances in technology in automation and lessened chances of global warfare
a) dramatically reduced any perceived need for women to be child-bearers primarily and
b) dramatically reduced the number and need for physically demanding or dangerous work traditionally undertaken by men.
With the disappearance of any need for a binary conception of gender and sexuality, the third wave's perspective of gender fluidity and individuality looks like a natural progression not only for feminism, but for society generally; hence the inclusiveness of LGBT issues on the one hand, and the frequent reluctance to explicitly identify as feminists at all on the other.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Third-wave_feminism
Four Waves of Feminism | Pacific University
I'm really not seeing what is so objectionable about all of this. The examples in this thread which have raised the most petulance - the wage gap, 'rape culture,' dismissing or denying men's issues, and attributing dislike of particular media to misogyny - have no clear connection to third wave feminism at all. As I initially questioned, they seem to be fringe minority examples, perhaps a reactionary pushback against the perceived diminishing need for traditional (ie, second wave) feminism in societies which are now largely egalitarian.
Falsely equivocating a small reactionary element with 'third wave' feminism - and, in the OP and in numerous posts throughout, with nonspecific feminism in general - even though the latter's flow is pretty much entirely antithetical to those objectionable examples does not make a very compelling case, to my mind.