Based on what you're writing, I'd say that you utterly fail to understand Constitutional law. Also, you didn't actually read my post. Let's try this again:
The Bill of Rights did not apply to the states until the passage of the 14th (and 15th) Amendment.
When it was originally ratified, the BoR only restricted the federal government. The SCOTUS confirmed this as early as 1833 in Barron v Baltimore.
That changed with the ratification of the 14th Amendment, due to the inclusion of the Due Process Clause, and the Privileges or Immunities Clauses. After it was ratified, it took decades for the courts to actually figure out how incorporation should work. The precise mechanics have been debated over the years -- e.g. should the incorporation be partial, or refer to all the enumerated rights in the BoR, or should it include unenumerated rights; should it be based on the Due Process and/or Privileges and Immunities clauses, and so forth.
For decades, and after selected rights were incorporated to the states, the courts still did not regard the 2nd Amendment as incorporated to the states. It wasn't until Scalia took a revisionist hatchet to the 2nd Amendment that this was reconsidered in McDonald v Chicago (2010).
As to LGBT and other civil rights: There are currently no federal laws protecting the civil rights of LGBT individuals. However, similar to same-sex marriage, such claims would be protected by the 14th Amendment, including the Due Process and Equal Protections clauses. And yes, that means that if we passed a federal law protecting the civil rights of LGBT individuals and groups, that law would apply to the states.