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It is argued by some people in the abortion debate that when a man deposits his sperm into a woman that he transfers ownership of that sperm to her. Therefore, as she is now the property owner of the sperm he has no say in any resulting pregnancy that might come about from his deposit. However, these same people argue that after the child is born that the man if called upon by the state must pay child support.
This argument is strange to me because if the man is not the owner of the sperm after deposit and thus has no say in any resulting pregnancy then how can he be held responsible after the child is born? As we should all be aware property owners are responsible and liable for their property, but those individuals that are not owners of that property are not responsible or liable for it. If the man in question already transferred ownership of the sperm then how can he be responsible for anything in which that property helps to produce?
If I am correct then the only way to logically hold him responsible after birth is to reward him at the very least partial ownership of the result of the pregnancy. However, if this was done against the woman's will then it would be a violation of her rights. It would also seem to me that forcing ownership on the man would be a violation of his rights. So in either direction if the state was to force part ownership it would be a violation of one or other parties rights. In conclusion, if this argument is correct that ownership of the sperm is transferred on deposit then I do not see any grounds for child support or automatic male parental rights.
This argument is strange to me because if the man is not the owner of the sperm after deposit and thus has no say in any resulting pregnancy then how can he be held responsible after the child is born? As we should all be aware property owners are responsible and liable for their property, but those individuals that are not owners of that property are not responsible or liable for it. If the man in question already transferred ownership of the sperm then how can he be responsible for anything in which that property helps to produce?
If I am correct then the only way to logically hold him responsible after birth is to reward him at the very least partial ownership of the result of the pregnancy. However, if this was done against the woman's will then it would be a violation of her rights. It would also seem to me that forcing ownership on the man would be a violation of his rights. So in either direction if the state was to force part ownership it would be a violation of one or other parties rights. In conclusion, if this argument is correct that ownership of the sperm is transferred on deposit then I do not see any grounds for child support or automatic male parental rights.