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Self defense from the military, for the protection of the State. Sorry, but you can't change the text.
A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.
That is the precondition to the second part of the statement. Without that precondition, the second part doesn't matter. That is basic logic of the English language. It is really up to the military to determine whether or not armed citizens are required for their defense of the state. About every 10 years, the military should take a vote.
can you find a court case that is controlling (no) or a comment by the founders (no) and the rest of your claim is the typical outcome based garbage that the gun banners come up with to try to justify their treasonous nonsense.
You have been schooled that the purpose of the second amendment was to ratify a right the founders believed existed and was endowed upon man by the creator and that this natural RIGHT existed BEFORE the creation of formal government. That is undeniable when one reads the documents generated by the founders and the contemporary legal scholars such as St George Tucker. It is further supported by the Cruikshank case-about 80 years later. Your nonsensical unsupported interpretation would require the existence of a military run by a state for that right to vest. that is specious.