I guess proof that one has signed a contract should be required to vote then.
I mean, if one can't prove one has signed a contract one can't prove they can sign a contract.
Right?
But in reality age at which one can sign a contract varies from State to State as well as whether an individual has been granted court ordered emancipation.
What about the states that don't consider individuals sufficiently able to sign a contract until they are 19 or 21? Do you take away their right to vote until they meet those ages?
What about states that allow a 16 year old to sign a contract with parental consent?
So much to consider, so much to winnow out...