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- Oct 4, 2011
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Most folks refer to the 50s, 60s, and to some extent the 70s, when they talk about the golden years of American production and exportation. It was this time period that the middle class emerged as the dominant force driving our economy. And a great many, even MOST, of the jobs that enabled this growth...were union jobs.
I believe the reason unions thrived was because the US more or less enjoyed a monopoly on most types of production for most of this time period. Europe was rubble. The Japanese were slightly better off, but they were still playing catch up, technologically speaking, in a few areas. And Russia...well, Russia was communist, and I heard that didn't work out to well for them. So, mass produced goods were largely US made. This meant that sales were such that, even with low prices, both profits, and union wages could be high, without hurting the bottom line. True?
Would that, then, be a bubble? Was/is our middle class, hailed by many as the driving power of the American economy, nothing more than the byproduct of monopolization on a global scale?
And if so, then is it fair to say that said middle class will never return in force?
I believe the reason unions thrived was because the US more or less enjoyed a monopoly on most types of production for most of this time period. Europe was rubble. The Japanese were slightly better off, but they were still playing catch up, technologically speaking, in a few areas. And Russia...well, Russia was communist, and I heard that didn't work out to well for them. So, mass produced goods were largely US made. This meant that sales were such that, even with low prices, both profits, and union wages could be high, without hurting the bottom line. True?
Would that, then, be a bubble? Was/is our middle class, hailed by many as the driving power of the American economy, nothing more than the byproduct of monopolization on a global scale?
And if so, then is it fair to say that said middle class will never return in force?