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If you think so then where is it in the Constitution? Dems are still fuming because if you tally the vote totals from the Bush/Gore voting Gore got more votes (some mistakenly think that was a popular vote which it was not) and that our so-called right to vote and have that vote counted was violated because the person who got the "majority" didn't win.
And should everyone be allowed or encouraged to vote at all? Is it in the best interest of the country to get as many people to vote as possible just for the shear numbers, knowing that half don't have a clue as to the issues or candidates?
And should everyone be allowed or encouraged to vote at all? Is it in the best interest of the country to get as many people to vote as possible just for the shear numbers, knowing that half don't have a clue as to the issues or candidates?