Firstly for the late response, sorry.
Im sorry this interpreation of the French taking a black eye for you doesnt resonate for you because they were acting in their own interests. This is irrelevant, why? Because it is perfectly possible for a country to act both in your interests and its own.
But thats something of a double negative, isn't it? First you say it is irrelevant if they were acting in their own interests, then you say that it is perfectly possible for them to have acted both in their interest and our interest, simultaneously. But regardless, I think I understand your intended point.
Of course its possible to do so. In this case, though I don't recall reading any descriptions of this specific aspect of the US/French negotiations during the period, I would imagine that the French appealed as strongly as possible to the developing US concern about the perceived growing Soviet/communist threat. When trying to convince the US to support them in French-Indochina, the French were certainly likely to use every possible argument to persuade the US that supporting them was in the best interest of the US as well. Whether it in actuality was in our best interest was arguable, but it was absolutely in the best interest of the French to convince us that our best interest lay in supporting them.
Moreover, the British were also extremely concerned about the developing threat of communist expansionism. It doesn't take much of stretch to see these three countries that would later become the core of NATO, agreeing that supporting the French in Indochina was also containing communist expansion.
But that still doesn't justify saying "the French took a black eye" for the US. French self-interest governed their actions, as did the actions of the US.
Id like to know why you jusitfy US actions in supporting the French because they were WW2 allies? Why not just support the side of right everywhere? Moreover do you think the French wouldve been supported if they were not white and christian?
This is really poor. Given that the vast majority of your previous posts are quite intelligent, this bit of hindsight-grabbing, woulda-coulda-shoulda logic is disappointing. But lets see what we can make of it anyway.
You are confusing "justify" with "understanding." Nowhere did I say that--
in hindsight -- the US did the
right thing. First, put yourself in the shoes of those in charge of US foreign diplomacy in the immediate post-WWII period. As noted above, the fear of Soviet expansion was very, very real, almost palpable. George Kennan's proposed policy of "containment" was beginning to make the rounds in the State Dept and was finding a lot of adherents, which is not too surprising given the atmosphere of the time. Soviet and/or communist expansion was seen as a very definite threat;
in the context of the times, what could be seen as wrong about countering that threat?
Second,
in the context of the times, what could have been "wrong" about helping an ally, especially one that had been devastated by WWII?
Thirdly, "not white and christian" didn't stop us from supporting Ho against the Japanese and it didn't stop some in the US gov't for coming to their defense when the question of France-vs-Vietnamese was being argued, though they didn't prevail.
Consequently, on balance, the administration,
in the context of the times, did what it thought was
right.
Moreover, after Dien Ben Phu and before you had any significant men on the ground the US was actively propping up the French effort. In fact, long before that battle in 1950 the French were ambushed on a dirt road where 2000 French troops disappeared. This precursor to Diem Bien Phu was enough of psycological shock and could well have caused negotiations to begin except for the Truman administration encouraging the French to persist right up their final debacle 3/4 years later. By the time of Diem Bien Phu the American, when Eisenhower sat in the oval office the US was paying 80% of France's war costs. The 'black eye' still not resonating for you?
Nope. A nice summary, but your point?
Next Id like to counter this thing about Chinese arming Vietnamese, while this did happen much more later, the first four years of the war between France and the Vietnamese seen the V's armed by captured French, Japanese imperial, American Lend-Lease bribed from the Chinese Nationalists and improvised copies of American carbines and British sten guns. Soon after they got weapons from both China's Nationalists and Thailand. Moreover Giap had an armed and ready functioning army before the Chinese Communists reached the borders in 1949.
Don't forget the American weapons that the US provided them during WWII. And yes, Giap had the manpower before the Chinese Communists got there, and did an impressive job, winning many more battles than they probably should have, considering the weaponry that they had. But it wasn't until the Chinese provided them with newer, better, heavier weapons that they were able to ultimately prevail in the manner in which they did.
Again, a nice summary, but your point?