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Quite possibly that's why he avoided answering.
I'm quite sure.
Quite possibly that's why he avoided answering.
It's not about abortion, per se.... it's about deciding who has the power to decide this issue under the terms of the 10th Amendment? The States or the people? As a matter arising out of the Constitution, the Supreme Court has jurisdiction on this matter, under Article III §2 cl. 1 - "The judicial Power shall extend to all Cases, in Law and Equity, arising under this Constitution..."
I'm not saying Roe wasn't a flawed decision either. No matter how you cut it and no matter how much it offends some people, the State has no compelling interest within any woman's uterus.
The state can proscribe abortion but only in subsequent to viability. Only .11% (that's .11% not 11%) happen after viability. Conservative states since Dobbs are banning abortions starting at the 6 the weekI have no doubt.
Guess again...
3. State criminal abortion laws, like those involved here, that except from criminality only a life-saving procedure on the mother's behalf without regard to the stage of her pregnancy and other interests involved violate the Due Process Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment, which protects against state action the right to privacy, including a woman's qualified right to terminate her pregnancy. Though the State cannot override that right, it has legitimate interests in protecting both the pregnant woman's health and the potentiality of human life, each of which interests grows and reaches a 'compelling' point at various stages of the woman's approach to term. Pp. 147-164.
a) For the stage prior to approximately the end of the first trimester, the abortion decision and its effectuation must be left to the medical judgment of the pregnant woman's attending physician. Pp. 163-164.
(b) For the stage subsequent to approximately the end of the first trimester, the State, in promoting its interest in the health of the mother, may, if it chooses, regulate the abortion procedure in ways that are reasonably related to maternal health. Pp. 163-164.
(c) For the stage subsequent to viability the State, in promoting its interest in the potentiality of human life, may, if it chooses, regulate, and even proscribe, abortion except where necessary, in appropriate medical judgment, for the preservation of the life or health of the mother. Pp. 163-164; 164—165.
That is, under Roe, the state can ban abortions and thus force women to submit their bodies the needs of another.
How dd you not know this?
The state can proscribe abortion but only in subsequent to viability.
I was correcting his broad claim that: " under Roe, the states -can- ban abortions and thus force women to submit their bodies the needs of another. How dd you not know this?"His point still stands tho.
I was correcting his broad claim that: " under Roe, the states -can- ban abortions and thus force women to submit their bodies the needs of another. How dd you not know this?"
Roe doesn't actually say that nor is it the tenor of Roe. Yes, the state is requiring women to give birth after viability because the state now has a vested interest in the potential child but Roe never conveys the feeling of punishment or force.
I have to agree that I'm belaboring a somewhat picky point
Correct.The state can proscribe abortion but only in subsequent to viability.
RvW was about states denying women a much safer medical procedure.
Yes, that is one way to understand Roe v Wade.Correct.
Roe v Wade allows the states to prohibit abortions.
In doing so, Row v Wade allows states to force women to submit their bodies the needs of another.
Just like I said.
Yes, that is one way to understand Roe v Wade.
I know, but I'm not going to waste time arguing with those that want to see it that way.No, Wade Vs Roe did not force women to subject their bodies to the will of the state.
I know, but I'm not going to waste time arguing with those that want to see it that way.