There is no "right" being taken away here.
The 9th Amendment says you have the right to do
anything that hasn't been made illegal via the rest of the constitution or other amendments and the laws based off of them. Drug laws are not supported by any portion of the constitution, or amendments; you have the right to do drugs, according to the constitution. Any law that takes that right away is unconstitutional.
No it isn't victimless or unjust.
Who is the victim then?
The user? Because that's impossible, you can't be your own victim. You have a natural right over your own actions and body, you can't victimize yourself; it's an oxymoron.
The state? Because the state, society, and the government are all inanimate concepts; they have no rights, thus their rights can't be infringed, and they can't be made into victims.
You? What someone else does, doesn't hurt you one little bit. If they were putting you at risk, such as driving while intoxicated, you have a claim. But, their existence and right to use, doesn't in itself harm you at all.
Their boss via this "liability"? When the liability is directly or indirectly caused by the law itself, then you're using circular logic. If this law didn't exist, you couldn't claim that a drug user was causing you any liability, if they were an otherwise competent employee. You mentioned a liability of lawsuits being greater because the boss hired a drug user; no such liability exists when drug use isn't illegal. It'd make no more sense than saying the boss was liable for hiring a drunk, which would never fly in court.
Show me the SCOTUS decision saying it is unconstitutional.
Don't ask don't tell, DOMA, Obamacare...yup the SCOTUS is a great measure of constitutionality. The SCOTUS ruled the drug war constitutional by saying that federal agents are protecting interstate trade, in other words, the federal government. This goes against the 9th Amendment, as the government has no rights and cannot be victimized. Again, a victimless crime.
Oy vey! Stick to the topic.
This is the topic. You're just not digging deep enough. As I've said before, this person wouldn't have had a problem if this law didn't exist, so the law and it's justifiability is instantly part of the discussion.
It is evidence that liability is considered when it comes to known drug users, as it should be. That is all.
LOL, since when did I need to prove your claims. You're claiming that they're a liability, without proof. There's a burden of proof, not disproof; I don't have to disprove a claim that wasn't proved in itself.
Do you really not understand the liability issue?
Do you not understand the
rights issue?
A Chef who constantly undercooked their meats would also be a liability issue.
Do you really not understand that?
Or is your support for drug use so blinding, that you can't see reality?
Such a chef would be fired, independent of drug use. How can you blame drugs for something people can do without drugs? Blame people for their actions, not the actions they might take.
I support any force against authoritarianism. I don't support drug use in itself; I would be completely indifferent to this case if the drug laws didn't exist.
I don't like drugs, I don't use drugs; my body is a temple.