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Government Entitlements

AConcernedCitizen

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Is it right for the Government to entitle one person to the fruits of another person's labour when that person has done no labour themself?

"Though the earth, and all inferior creatures, be common to all men, yet every man has a property in his own person: this no body has any right to but himself. The labour of his body, and the work of his hands, we may say, are properly his. Whatsoever then he removes out of the state that nature hath provided, and left it in, he hath mixed his labour with, and joined to it something that is his own, and thereby makes it his property. It being by him removed from the common state nature hath placed it in, it hath by this labour something annexed to it, that excludes the common right of other men: for this labour being the unquestionable property of the labourer, no man but he can have a right to what that is once joined to, at least where there is enough, and as good, left in common for others." - John Locke
 
Is it right for the Government to entitle one person to the fruits of another person's labour when that person has done no labour themself?

"Though the earth, and all inferior creatures, be common to all men, yet every man has a property in his own person: this no body has any right to but himself. The labour of his body, and the work of his hands, we may say, are properly his. Whatsoever then he removes out of the state that nature hath provided, and left it in, he hath mixed his labour with, and joined to it something that is his own, and thereby makes it his property. It being by him removed from the common state nature hath placed it in, it hath by this labour something annexed to it, that excludes the common right of other men: for this labour being the unquestionable property of the labourer, no man but he can have a right to what that is once joined to, at least where there is enough, and as good, left in common for others." - John Locke

Is it right for the Government to entitle one person to the fruits of another person's labour when that person has done no labour themself?

No.....
 
Is it right for the Government to entitle one person to the fruits of another person's labour when that person has done no labour themself?

"Though the earth, and all inferior creatures, be common to all men, yet every man has a property in his own person: this no body has any right to but himself. The labour of his body, and the work of his hands, we may say, are properly his. Whatsoever then he removes out of the state that nature hath provided, and left it in, he hath mixed his labour with, and joined to it something that is his own, and thereby makes it his property. It being by him removed from the common state nature hath placed it in, it hath by this labour something annexed to it, that excludes the common right of other men: for this labour being the unquestionable property of the labourer, no man but he can have a right to what that is once joined to, at least where there is enough, and as good, left in common for others." - John Locke

For the disabled, who are unable to work. Proud to help those in true need. But in this country, far too many take advantage of the system, who are healthy, capable to work, but chose to take from others.....there will be retribution, one day.
 
For the disabled, who are unable to work. Proud to help those in true need. But in this country, far too many take advantage of the system, who are healthy, capable to work, but chose to take from others.....there will be retribution, one day.
For the disabled, who are unable to work.

Lots of Gray area there

But in this country, far too many take advantage of the system

Human nature and vain politicians?
 

So supposing that Socrates labours in a coal mine for 10 hours, 'mixing his labour with the coal, and joining to it something that is his own' as Locke would say, does the coal then rightfully belong to Socrates?
 
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