aquapub
DP Veteran
- Joined
- Apr 16, 2005
- Messages
- 7,317
- Reaction score
- 344
- Location
- America (A.K.A., a red state)
- Gender
- Male
- Political Leaning
- Conservative
Bill Clinton said in his now infamous speech to Chris Wallace that he had passed up the chance to capture Bin Laden because Bin Laden hadn't committed any crimes against America.
That was in February, 1996.
The first mention by the media of any connection between Bin Laden and the 1st WTC attack occurred on 4/9/95 by the Associated Press. The headline was: "Government Says Abu Sayyaf Links Extend Through Afghanistan To Middle East." The link was reported being from Ramzi Yousef to Jamal Mohammed Khalifa, who is connected to Bin Laden directly.
The media gets their national security information from the government, usually on a delay, and usually without most of the story.
So if the media was reporting the connection between Bin Laden and the 1st WTC attack in 1995 (meaning the government MUST have been aware of it), then how is it possible that Clinton turned down extradition of Bin Laden due to him not having committed any crimes against us?
Even if there wasn't any indication Bin Laden had committed any crimes against us, by 1996, everyone knew he was dangerous, and this highlights the inadequacy of the left's preffered method-treating terrorism as a criminal issue rather than as a military one.
So the question is does this revelation indicate that Bill Clinton IS more culpable for 9/11, especially when you consider the two chances we had to kill Bin Laden that Clinton botched, and that in 8 years of Al Queda attacks, the ONLY two times he used military force was 1) on the day he admitted that he had slept with that woman, and 2) the day he was indicted (both attacks were total failures)?
That was in February, 1996.
The first mention by the media of any connection between Bin Laden and the 1st WTC attack occurred on 4/9/95 by the Associated Press. The headline was: "Government Says Abu Sayyaf Links Extend Through Afghanistan To Middle East." The link was reported being from Ramzi Yousef to Jamal Mohammed Khalifa, who is connected to Bin Laden directly.
The media gets their national security information from the government, usually on a delay, and usually without most of the story.
So if the media was reporting the connection between Bin Laden and the 1st WTC attack in 1995 (meaning the government MUST have been aware of it), then how is it possible that Clinton turned down extradition of Bin Laden due to him not having committed any crimes against us?
Even if there wasn't any indication Bin Laden had committed any crimes against us, by 1996, everyone knew he was dangerous, and this highlights the inadequacy of the left's preffered method-treating terrorism as a criminal issue rather than as a military one.
So the question is does this revelation indicate that Bill Clinton IS more culpable for 9/11, especially when you consider the two chances we had to kill Bin Laden that Clinton botched, and that in 8 years of Al Queda attacks, the ONLY two times he used military force was 1) on the day he admitted that he had slept with that woman, and 2) the day he was indicted (both attacks were total failures)?