I actually find this very interesting, because we are seeing this play out with the January 6th arguments that Trump is responsible for inciting.
As a hypothetical, a cult leader (no I am not saying Trump is a cult leader before you try and argue that) who is not "getting his hands dirty" calls on his followers to go and kill minorities, and they do it, would that cult leader be responsible? Technically, using this argument,, all he did was say that his followers should so it. He did not break any laws, or personally kill anybody.
At what point does "free speech" become criminal? Is it really about not wanting to hear it and move on, or is it about not wanting to hear it, but being unstable in the head that that speech reaches that person in a way that makes him or her act on the things that he or she heard, whether they wanted to hear it or not? There are exceptions to every rule (not yelling fire when there is no fire, killing someone in self defense), where would the line be?
Trump is not responsible for inciting January 6. He didn't call for anybody to do anything but come to DC to protest, as everyone has a right to do.
You're not calling Trump a cult leader, but then you compare him to a cult leader than "calls on his followers to go and kill minorities and they do it." Well, Trump did not do anything like that. He called on his supporters to rally in Washington. That's freedom of speech and association. Not only did he not "personally kill anyone", he did not tell anyone to kill anyone, or harm anyone, or harass anyone, or trespass, or anything else like that. He called on people to rally.
At what point does free speech become criminal? Free speech includes the advocacy of the use of force and advocacy of engaging in criminal activity, except that advocacy of force or criminal activity does not receive First Amendment protections if (1) the advocacy is directed to inciting or producing imminent lawless action, and (2) is likely to incite or produce such action.
Trump did not advocate the use of force. He also did not advocate that anyone engage in criminal activity. So, we don't even get to the exceptions - I.e. we don't even need to ask whether his advocacy of the use of force was "directed to inciting or producing imminent lawless action" because he didn't advocate the use of force at all. This exception was created because groups like communists and other Leftists will often advocate the benefits or necessity of force in general - that a revolution is needed, or that we should violently overthrow the government - people are allowed to talk about that stuff - except, you can't talk about that stuff if the talk is "directed to inciting or producing imminent lawless action." AND -- repeat AND what the person says has to be LIKELY to incide or produce such action.
So, to analyze this issue, if you claim what Trump said was not protected speech, you need to identify a statement made by Donald Trump which (A) constitutes advocacy of the use of force, and (B) his advocacy of the use of force was directed to inciting or producing imminent lawless action, and (C) his advocacy of the use of force was in fact likely to produce such lawless action.
Have at it - identify one comment or statement by Donald Trump which fits that description.