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Fetal homicide understanding

CivicED

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So I'm trying to get my head around fetal homicide, feticide. Someone help me understand this. A common argument to make abortion illegal is people say that these laws prove it's murder. Murder isn't in the constitution it's left up to the states. It's my understanding that these laws of fetal homicide, and feticide are relatively new. It looks like they started coming up in the states around 2004 from my research. If this is true then there is no way for it to overturn Roe versus Wade? How would this get to a federal Supreme Court? In Roe VS Wade oral arguments the question of life is withdrawn. So hypothetically if he came back to the federal court like this would they argue when life begins?
 
Those laws specifically exclude abortion. Murder, by definition, is an ILLEGAL act. Abortion is legal, therefore it is not murder.
 
Those laws specifically exclude abortion. Murder, by definition, is an ILLEGAL act. Abortion is legal, therefore it is not murder.

So just for clarification, if I was to be charged for a double homicide in a drunk driving accident hitting a woman that's pregnant and killing the unborn fetus. There's no way I could argue that case that would go to the federal Supreme Court on the fact that the unborn fetus is not recognized as having rights under the Constitution from the case Roe vs wade?


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So just for clarification, if I was to be charged for a double homicide in a drunk driving accident hitting a woman that's pregnant and killing the unborn fetus. There's no way I could argue that case that would go to the federal Supreme Court on the fact that the unborn fetus is not recognized as having rights under the Constitution from the case Roe vs wade?
It may depend on the age of the fetus. Roe v Wade gives the State an interest in the life of an unborn human after the first trimester (future taxpayer, see?). On another hand, consider the fetus as property --when a woman wants to carry a pregnancy to term, even before the end of the first trimester, killing the fetus violates property laws for certain, regardless of anything about "homicide", the killing of a human (personhood irrelevant). After the first trimester, State interest can declare that fetal homicide is as bad a thing as any other action the State frowns upon (like maybe arson).
 
It may depend on the age of the fetus. Roe v Wade gives the State an interest in the life of an unborn human after the first trimester (future taxpayer, see?). On another hand, consider the fetus as property --when a woman wants to carry a pregnancy to term, even before the end of the first trimester, killing the fetus violates property laws for certain, regardless of anything about "homicide", the killing of a human (personhood irrelevant). After the first trimester, State interest can declare that fetal homicide is as bad a thing as any other action the State frowns upon (like maybe arson).

Well it's my understanding, and correct me if I'm wrong, but the whole trimester thing gets thrown out the window with Planned Parenthood verse Casey. So now what justice Blackmun laid out for trimester to be federally governed is thrown out. And roe versus Wade still stands to say that the unborn fetus is in personhood until it is born and then has life and let's say a birth certificate that gives it constitutional rights. So if I'm right on this than states can now by law even in the first trimester make it a fetal homicide and charge for double murder in the first trimester? And really I'm just trying to figure out if you could fight that all the way to the federal court and challenge it unconstitutional because of Roe vs wade? And I'm curious with this be a case where we just decide at what point life begins?


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Those laws specifically exclude abortion. Murder, by definition, is an ILLEGAL act. Abortion is legal, therefore it is not murder.

That's only because of the way the left has characterized babies pre and post birth.
 
That's only because of the way the left has characterized babies pre and post birth.

George Bush Junior sign the unborn victims of violence act with the clause separating the two.


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George Bush Junior sign the unborn victims of violence act with the clause separating the two.


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That's also why for the same reasons. He was a good man, but he occasionally we the way of the loud voices and he bent a rule or two. Because of the way the left has characterized babies pre and post birth.
 
Those laws specifically exclude abortion. Murder, by definition, is an ILLEGAL act. Abortion is legal, therefore it is not murder.
Although that's true, killing is still wrong. And you have to wonder what Gods thoughts are on the matter.
 
This makes no sense whatsoever.

Yes it does. The left sees fetus's as a nonhuman nobody, and a parasite before birth, and when born, suddenly, it's a human. Now THAT makes no sense whatsoever.
 
Last edited:
This makes no sense whatsoever.

C'mon, you're not new here. All arguments are on the table when it comes to blaming "the left" for literally everything certain people don't like.
 
Although that's true, killing is still wrong. And you have to wonder what Gods thoughts are on the matter.

I don't much care what your imaginary sky fairy's thoughts are on any matter.
 
I don't much care what your imaginary sky fairy's thoughts are on any matter.

Nor do I about your views ��
 
So I'm trying to get my head around fetal homicide, feticide. Someone help me understand this. A common argument to make abortion illegal is people say that these laws prove it's murder. Murder isn't in the constitution it's left up to the states. It's my understanding that these laws of fetal homicide, and feticide are relatively new. It looks like they started coming up in the states around 2004 from my research. If this is true then there is no way for it to overturn Roe versus Wade? How would this get to a federal Supreme Court? In Roe VS Wade oral arguments the question of life is withdrawn. So hypothetically if he came back to the federal court like this would they argue when life begins?

There is no fetal homicide law that can also be used to deem abortion murder, all one has to do is look at the definition of abortion, murder and the verbiage of the fetal homicide laws. By definition nothing in them match up that are equal to abortion.
SO any argument based on fetal homicide is a complete and dishonest failure because the definitions of the terms in question already prove they are not equal and any case brought up solely on that wouldn't even get the light of day by SCOTUS.
 
Abortion is killing a fertilized egg. if the egg is not fertilized, then there is a period. if a condom is worn, then the egg is not fertilized. this denies life to eggs, so, would you say it is the same thing? i mean, killing a person is wrong, so every egg should be fertilized one might say?

Of course, the egg once it is fertilized is a living thing. if you kill a living person, it is murder. there is plenty of chances to make the right choice, so, seeing as how only a minor amount of babies are aborted, it probably won't make a difference to his population explosion some people talk about, yes?

Now, if the baby comes to a family that cannot support them, then they need to observe even on a minimum wage job, they can afford another loaf of bread every fortnight and a little milk. this will see the baby through to school time. as soon as they enter school, they can be sent to state supplied services - if that is not done, isn't it a good cheap idea? i know the right are are against abortion, so, how about a minor sum for this type of service?
 
Although that's true, killing is still wrong. And you have to wonder what Gods thoughts are on the matter.

No, killing is not always wrong. My god is pro-choice.



Yes it does. The left sees fetus's as a nonhuman nobody, and a parasite before birth, and when born, suddenly, it's a human.


Prove it.



C'mon, you're not new here. All arguments are on the table when it comes to blaming "the left" for literally everything certain people don't like.

Point taken.
 
So I'm trying to get my head around fetal homicide, feticide. Someone help me understand this. A common argument to make abortion illegal is people say that these laws prove it's murder. ...




The feticide laws and or or the UVVA ( unborn victims of violence act ) reconize abortion is legal.

The law only takes affect if an unborn was killed during a crime against the pregnant woman.

When an unborn is killed during an attack on the woman feticide laws may be used against the attacker.
Although many think murder charges are being brought against the attacker...the fact is the attacker is actually charged with violating the feticide law or the UVVA.

It is important to understand that the UVVA or state feticide laws and Roe vs Wade are not conflicting laws.


Roe v Wade is a SC decision that held that state abortion laws violate the Due process clause in the fourteenth amendment,
which protects individuals against state action that infringes on their privacy.

The UVVA and state feticide laws passed under Roe vs Wade because it explicitly identified "abortion' is an activity that can't be prosecuted when the abortion is obtained with the consent of the pregnant woman or individual authorized to act on her behalf.

~~~~
The feticide laws apply only when a crime against the woman was made.

There is no charge during a legal abortion if the woman or her legal representive consented to the abortion because elective abortion is legal under both feticide laws and the UVVA.


All state feticide laws have a clause specifing that nothing in the act shall make it a crime to perform or obtain an abortion that is otherwise legal.
~~~~
People who violate UVVA are not charged with murder. They are charged with violating UVVA

And the UVVA defines the feticide as ""intentionally killing or attempting to kill an "unborn child in utero".

In the recent Florida case where the man gave his girlfriend abortion pills and told her they were antibiotics was charged with violating the UVVA.

He was not charged with murder.

He was charged with intentionally causing the death of " and intentionally attempted to kill and did kill,
the unborn child in utero of R.L.
In violation of Title 18, United States Code, Sections 1841 and 1111 ( a )."
 
No, killing is not always wrong. My god is pro-choice.





Prove it.




Point taken.

True again, but killing without a heart, against a tiny human life, who is totally without guilt or fault, is wrong. And your response was Prove it! That's not very nice of but I'm confused. What do you want proof of? All I said was that leftists feel that a baby is. Not a baby until it's born. You asked me to pro that? Why would you ask me to prove what every body knows already Anyway
 
The feticide laws and or or the UVVA ( unborn victims of violence act ) reconize abortion is legal.

The law only takes affect if an unborn was killed during a crime against the pregnant woman.

When an unborn is killed during an attack on the woman feticide laws may be used against the attacker.
Although many think murder charges are being brought against the attacker...the fact is the attacker is actually charged with violating the feticide law or the UVVA.

It is important to understand that the UVVA or state feticide laws and Roe vs Wade are not conflicting laws.


Roe v Wade is a SC decision that held that state abortion laws violate the Due process clause in the fourteenth amendment,
which protects individuals against state action that infringes on their privacy.

The UVVA and state feticide laws passed under Roe vs Wade because it explicitly identified "abortion' is an activity that can't be prosecuted when the abortion is obtained with the consent of the pregnant woman or individual authorized to act on her behalf.

~~~~
The feticide laws apply only when a crime against the woman was made.

There is no charge during a legal abortion if the woman or her legal representive consented to the abortion because elective abortion is legal under both feticide laws and the UVVA.


All state feticide laws have a clause specifing that nothing in the act shall make it a crime to perform or obtain an abortion that is otherwise legal.
~~~~
People who violate UVVA are not charged with murder. They are charged with violating UVVA

And the UVVA defines the feticide as ""intentionally killing or attempting to kill an "unborn child in utero".

In the recent Florida case where the man gave his girlfriend abortion pills and told her they were antibiotics was charged with violating the UVVA.

He was not charged with murder.

He was charged with intentionally causing the death of " and intentionally attempted to kill and did kill,
the unborn child in utero of R.L.
In violation of Title 18, United States Code, Sections 1841 and 1111 ( a )."

Bravo. Good post. When can you write something about the entire abortionment?
 
True again, but killing without a heart, against a tiny human life, who is totally without guilt or fault, is wrong. And your response was Prove it! That's not very nice of but I'm confused. What do you want proof of? All I said was that leftists feel that a baby is. Not a baby until it's born. You asked me to pro that? Why would you ask me to prove what every body knows already Anyway

Prove the assertion in the quote I made above my request. It shouldn't take a rocket scientist to understand that.
 
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