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Do Genesis 1 and 2 Contradict? [W:178]

davidtaylorjr

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This is spawned off from another thread but we need to not hijack that thread any longer.
 

Jredbaron96

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Originally Posted by Genesis 1: 25 - 27
25 God made the wild animals according to their kinds, the livestock according to their kinds, and all the creatures that move along the ground according to their kinds. And God saw that it was good. 26 Then God said, “Let us make mankind in our image, in our likeness, so that they may rule over the fish in the sea and the birds in the sky, over the livestock and all the wild animals,[a] and over all the creatures that move along the ground.” 27 So God created mankind in his own image, in the image of God he created them; male and female he created them.

Only to be followed by:
VS.

Originally Posted by Genesis 2: 18-19
18 The Lord God said, “It is not good for the man to be alone. I will make a helper suitable for him.” 19 Now the Lord God had formed out of the ground all the wild animals and all the birds in the sky. He brought them to the man to see what he would name them; and whatever the man called each living creature, that was its name.
 

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This is spawned off from another thread but we need to not hijack that thread any longer.

I find it hard to reconcile to literal interpretations of Genesis one and two. If everything isn't meant to be taken exactly as literal events, I don't think they necessarily contradict.
 

davidtaylorjr

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I find it hard to reconcile to literal interpretations of Genesis one and two. If everything isn't meant to be taken exactly as literal events, I don't think they necessarily contradict.

But the two passages don't contradict even if you do take it literally. Still waiting for someone to show how they contradict.
 

OscarB63

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That's fairly contradictory, alright.


GEN 1: god made animals and then said let us make man....

GEN 2 says: now the lord HAD formed..... implying that the animals HAD already been created before man.

I don't see the contradiction.
 

Tucker Case

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Actually it didn't contradict.


Actually, it does. In the first quote, the animals came first, then man was created in God's image. In the second quote, Man existed before the animals did, they were brought forth from the ground to find him a helper.

In genesis one, man and woman were made simultaneously, both after the animals. In genesis 2, man came first, then the plants, then animals, then woman last.

Explain how that doesn't contradict. (hint: a second response along the lines of "nuh uh! it doesn't contradict" does not explain how they don't contradict)
 

Tucker Case

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GEN 1: god made animals and then said let us make man....

GEN 2 says: now the lord HAD formed..... implying that the animals HAD already been created before man.

I don't see the contradiction.

had formed out of the ground does not imply that they had already been created. Had brought forth out of the ground, perhaps, but even if we did pretend it implied such, that still doesn't address the time error between man and woman being created simultaneously in genesis 1, but at very different times in genesis 2.
 

OscarB63

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Actually, it does. In the first quote, the animals came first, then man was created in God's image. In the second quote, Man existed before the animals did, they were brought forth from the ground to find him a helper.

In genesis one, man and woman were made simultaneously, both after the animals. In genesis 2, man came first, then the plants, then animals, then woman last.

Explain how that doesn't contradict. (hint: a second response along the lines of "nuh uh! it doesn't contradict" does not explain how they don't contradict)

only partially correct. (about man and woman) see my post about the animals. In GEN 2 the animals HAD already been formed and then they were brought before man. it does not say that man was created and THEN animals were created.
 

davidtaylorjr

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Actually, it does. In the first quote, the animals came first, then man was created in God's image. In the second quote, Man existed before the animals did, they were brought forth from the ground to find him a helper.

In genesis one, man and woman were made simultaneously, both after the animals. In genesis 2, man came first, then the plants, then animals, then woman last.

Explain how that doesn't contradict. (hint: a second response along the lines of "nuh uh! it doesn't contradict" does not explain how they don't contradict)

Show the exact quote in chapter 2 that says man came before the animals. It is not there. That isn't me saying nuh uh, it is me telling you that it is simply not there. You should read the verse a little more closely and not add in what isn't there.
 

OscarB63

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had formed out of the ground does not imply that they had already been created.

then I guess we have different opinions on what the word "had" means.....

that still doesn't address the time error between man and woman being created simultaneously in genesis 1, but at very different times in genesis 2.

I agree on that point
 

Tucker Case

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Show the exact quote in chapter 2 that says man came before the animals. It is not there. That isn't me saying nuh uh, it is me telling you that it is simply not there. You should read the verse a little more closely and not add in what isn't there.

Genesis 2:18 The Lord God said, “It is not good for the man to be alone. I will make a helper suitable for him.”

the bolded word is important.
 

Tucker Case

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then I guess we have different opinions on what the word "had" means.....

What about make? Do you think that means something other than make?

"18 The Lord God said, “It is not good for the man to be alone. I will make a helper suitable for him.”

19 Now the Lord God had formed out of the ground all the wild animals and all the birds in the sky. "
 

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GEN 1: god made animals and then said let us make man....

GEN 2 says: now the lord HAD formed..... implying that the animals HAD already been created before man.

I don't see the contradiction.

In some English versions it says that. According to my Hebrew/ Jewish Bible professor I had awhile back that phrase could be correctly translated from Hebrew both as had and not as had. This is part of the trouble with trying to come to conclusions about this.
 
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