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Can you be saved by faith alone?

Look at the very next verse:
"for in him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or authorities—all things were created through him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together."
Yes, I've examined it extensively, comparing it with other scriptures, in order to reach the conclusion that I have...Jesus is not Jehovah God...Jesus is Jehovah God's first creation and through him, all other things were created...


by means of him all other things were created: God used “his beloved Son” (Col 1:13) in creating the things “in the heavens and on the earth, the things visible and the things invisible.” This would include the millions of other spirit sons in Jehovah God’s heavenly family, as well as the physical universe. (Ge 1:1; Da 7:9, 10; Joh 1:3; Re 5:11) Jesus was Jehovah’s firstborn Son and the only one created directly by God. (Heb 1:6; see study notes on Joh 1:14 and Col 1:15.) Logically, it was to this firstborn Son that Jehovah said: “Let us make man in our image, according to our likeness.”—Ge 1:26.

all other things: A literal rendering of the Greek text would be “all things.” (Compare Kingdom Interlinear.) However, such a rendering could give the impression that Jesus was not created but was the Creator himself. And that idea would not agree with the rest of the Bible, including the preceding verse, which calls Jesus “the firstborn of all creation.” (Col 1:15; compare Re 3:14, where Jesus is called “the beginning of the creation by God.”) Also, the Greek word for “all” can in some contexts have the meaning “all other,” as for example at Lu 13:2 (“all other”); Lu 21:29 (“all the other”); Php 2:21 (“all the others”). This agrees with Paul’s inspired teaching found at 1Co 15:27: “God ‘subjected all things under his [Christ’s] feet.’ But when he says that ‘all things have been subjected,’ it is evident that this does not include the One who subjected all things to him.” So both the Bible’s teachings as a whole and the probable meaning of the Greek word used here support the rendering “all other things.”—Compare study note on Php 2:9.

created through him and for him: Although God’s firstborn Son, Jesus, is here said to have been involved in the creation of all things, the Scriptures do not call him the Creator. The preceding verse says that he is “the firstborn of all creation,” and at Re 3:14, he is called “the beginning of the creation by God.” After his own creation, Jesus, personified as “wisdom” in Proverbs chapter 8, became Jehovah’s “master worker.” (Pr 8:1, 22, 30) Jesus’ involvement with creation is described at Pr 8:22-31, which says that Jehovah’s master worker “rejoiced over [God’s] habitable earth, and . . . was especially fond of the sons of men [or, “mankind”].” It is in this sense that Col 1:16 says: “All other things have been created through him and for him.”

https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/b/r1/lp-e/nwtsty/51/1#s=16&study=discover
 
Yes, I've examined it extensively, comparing it with other scriptures, in order to reach the conclusion that I have...Jesus is not Jehovah God...Jesus is Jehovah God's first creation and through him, all other things were created...


by means of him all other things were created: God used “his beloved Son” (Col 1:13) in creating the things “in the heavens and on the earth, the things visible and the things invisible.” This would include the millions of other spirit sons in Jehovah God’s heavenly family, as well as the physical universe. (Ge 1:1; Da 7:9, 10; Joh 1:3; Re 5:11) Jesus was Jehovah’s firstborn Son and the only one created directly by God. (Heb 1:6; see study notes on Joh 1:14 and Col 1:15.) Logically, it was to this firstborn Son that Jehovah said: “Let us make man in our image, according to our likeness.”—Ge 1:26.

all other things: A literal rendering of the Greek text would be “all things.” (Compare Kingdom Interlinear.) However, such a rendering could give the impression that Jesus was not created but was the Creator himself. And that idea would not agree with the rest of the Bible, including the preceding verse, which calls Jesus “the firstborn of all creation.” (Col 1:15; compare Re 3:14, where Jesus is called “the beginning of the creation by God.”) Also, the Greek word for “all” can in some contexts have the meaning “all other,” as for example at Lu 13:2 (“all other”); Lu 21:29 (“all the other”); Php 2:21 (“all the others”). This agrees with Paul’s inspired teaching found at 1Co 15:27: “God ‘subjected all things under his [Christ’s] feet.’ But when he says that ‘all things have been subjected,’ it is evident that this does not include the One who subjected all things to him.” So both the Bible’s teachings as a whole and the probable meaning of the Greek word used here support the rendering “all other things.”—Compare study note on Php 2:9.

created through him and for him: Although God’s firstborn Son, Jesus, is here said to have been involved in the creation of all things, the Scriptures do not call him the Creator. The preceding verse says that he is “the firstborn of all creation,” and at Re 3:14, he is called “the beginning of the creation by God.” After his own creation, Jesus, personified as “wisdom” in Proverbs chapter 8, became Jehovah’s “master worker.” (Pr 8:1, 22, 30) Jesus’ involvement with creation is described at Pr 8:22-31, which says that Jehovah’s master worker “rejoiced over [God’s] habitable earth, and . . . was especially fond of the sons of men [or, “mankind”].” It is in this sense that Col 1:16 says: “All other things have been created through him and for him.”

https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/b/r1/lp-e/nwtsty/51/1#s=16&study=discover
I'm glad you admit that you twist the Greek whenever it doesn't fit your opinions. This isn't serious exegesis.

You appeal to revelation 3:14 but this isn't serious. The word used there is arche. Arche can mean beginning, but it also means originator or chief. It's not definitive and certainly doesn't justify you changing Colossians even though the Greek is clear.
 
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I'm glad you admit that you twist the Greek whenever it doesn't fit your opinions. This isn't serious exegesis.

You appeal to revelation 3:14 but this isn't serious. The word used there is arche. Arche can mean beginning, but it also means originator or chief. It's not definitive and certainly doesn't justify you changing Colossians even though the Greek is clear.
Exactly...as in Archangel...the prefix arch means chief or principal...this definition, along with the fact that archangel in the Bible is used only in the singular, indicates that there is just one archangel...the Bible gives the name of the archangel, identifying him as Michael...Daniel 12:1; Jude 9; Revelation 12:7...1 Thessalonians 4:16, in speaking of the preeminence of the archangel and the authority of his office, it does so in reference to the resurrected Lord Jesus Christ...

“The Lord himself will descend from heaven with a commanding call, with an archangel’s voice and with God’s trumpet, and those who are dead in union with Christ will rise first.”
 
If he was devine he couldn't be man.
As a man, he wasn't divine...Jesus was wholly a human from his birth until his resurrection from the dead...John tells us in John 1:1 that “the Word became flesh"...not part flesh and part God, not merely clothed with flesh, but became or now was flesh...if he had been part God and part human it could not have been said that he had been “made lower than the angels” in Hebrews 2:9...
 
As a man, he wasn't divine...Jesus was wholly a human from his birth until his resurrection from the dead...John tells us in John 1:1 that “the Word became flesh"...not part flesh and part God, not merely clothed with flesh, but became or now was flesh...if he had been part God and part human it could not have been said that he had been “made lower than the angels” in Hebrews 2:9...
And where is this absurdity in your bible translation?
 
If Jesus Christ had been both God and man at the same time, would it have been necessary for him to pray to God for help, as he repeatedly did? “Father, all things are possible to thee; remove this cup from me; yet not what I will, but what thou wilt.” “In the days of his flesh, Jesus offered up prayers and supplications, with loud cries and tears, to him who was able to save him from death, and he was heard for his godly fear. Although he was a Son, he learned obedience through what he suffered; and being made perfect he became the source of eternal salvation to all who obey him.”—Mark 14:36; Heb. 5:7-9.

If Jesus had been both God and man while on earth, how could he have been tested as are human creatures? Yet this he was. “For we have not a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sinning.” Only because he was truly human could he experience what humans experience and so become a sympathetic high priest.—Heb. 4:15.

Nor is that all. Jesus came as “the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!” To this end he “gave himself as a ransom,” that is, a corresponding price, to redeem, to buy back what Adam had lost for the human race. Adam was not a God-man, he was not an incarnation. God’s justice required “life for life,” and so we read that “as in Adam all die, so also in Christ shall all be made alive.”—John 1:29; 1 Tim. 2:6; Deut. 19:21; 1 Cor. 15:22.

https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1961681#h=12
 
Exactly...as in Archangel...the prefix arch means chief or principal...this definition, along with the fact that archangel in the Bible is used only in the singular, indicates that there is just one archangel...the Bible gives the name of the archangel, identifying him as Michael...Daniel 12:1; Jude 9; Revelation 12:7...1 Thessalonians 4:16, in speaking of the preeminence of the archangel and the authority of his office, it does so in reference to the resurrected Lord Jesus Christ...

“The Lord himself will descend from heaven with a commanding call, with an archangel’s voice and with God’s trumpet, and those who are dead in union with Christ will rise first.”
The word used is arch, not archangel.
 
If Jesus Christ had been both God and man at the same time, would it have been necessary for him to pray to God for help, as he repeatedly did? “Father, all things are possible to thee; remove this cup from me; yet not what I will, but what thou wilt.” “In the days of his flesh, Jesus offered up prayers and supplications, with loud cries and tears, to him who was able to save him from death, and he was heard for his godly fear. Although he was a Son, he learned obedience through what he suffered; and being made perfect he became the source of eternal salvation to all who obey him.”—Mark 14:36; Heb. 5:7-9.

If Jesus had been both God and man while on earth, how could he have been tested as are human creatures? Yet this he was. “For we have not a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sinning.” Only because he was truly human could he experience what humans experience and so become a sympathetic high priest.—Heb. 4:15.

Nor is that all. Jesus came as “the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!” To this end he “gave himself as a ransom,” that is, a corresponding price, to redeem, to buy back what Adam had lost for the human race. Adam was not a God-man, he was not an incarnation. God’s justice required “life for life,” and so we read that “as in Adam all die, so also in Christ shall all be made alive.”—John 1:29; 1 Tim. 2:6; Deut. 19:21; 1 Cor. 15:22.

https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1961681#h=12
God owed a debt? To whom?
 
That is what archangel means...chief angel...
The word in Revelation is arche. It nowhere says angel. Just arche. The chief of creation. The originator of creation.
 
The word in Revelation is arche. It nowhere says angel. Just arche. The chief of creation. The originator of creation.
Are we still talking about Revelation 3:14?

“To the angel of the congregation in Laodicea write: These are the things that the Amen says, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation by God:"
 
Are we still talking about Revelation 3:14?

“To the angel of the congregation in Laodicea write: These are the things that the Amen says, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation by God:"
Christ is the Amen, not the angel. Arche refers to the Amen.
 
lol...which is one and same, just as you stated...
What? I said that the angel and the Amen are the same? The Amen is addressing the angel. They're separate entities.
 
What? I said that the angel and the Amen are the same? The Amen is addressing the angel. They're separate entities.
And what is arche but a prefix, meaning chief...Christ is the chief-angel or archangel...
 
And what is arche but a prefix, meaning chief...Christ is the chief-angel or archangel...
Arche doesn't refer to the angel. It refers to the Amen (Jesus). The Amen is speaking to the angel.
 
Nothing you can do to be saved. It is an unearned gift. You earn your way into hell.
 
Nothing you can do to be saved. It is an unearned gift. You earn your way into hell.
Is whether we go to heaven or not utterly arbitrary?
 
God’s justice required “life for life,” and so we read that “as in Adam all die, so also in Christ shall all be made alive.
but according to Christianity as well as Judaism, we all die because of Eve.
Nothing you can do to be saved. It is an unearned gift. You earn your way into hell.
Wishful thinking of those who don't want to do good deeds.

Augustine also said women are only good for reproduction.
 
but according to Christianity as well as Judaism, we all die because of Eve.
Wrong...Adam holds the brunt of responsibility...by getting his directions directly from God and being the head of Eve, he understood fully what he was doing...if he had exercised his headship in the proper way, well...things might have been different today...we'll never know...

"Adam was not deceived, but the woman was thoroughly deceived+ and became a transgressor." 1 Timothy 2:13
 
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