If the person who was convicted of a felony has served 100% of their prison sentence,
and if they have paid 100% of the ordered restitution,
and if they are then told by the court "We don't know what you have to pay in court fees because no one ever worked it out.",
and if the state government then says "It doesn't matter that no one can tell you how much you have to pay in court fees. What matters is whether or not you have paid them. Obviously you can't pay them if no one knows what they are. We aren't going to bother to waste our time and resources figuring out how much you have to pay. That means that you have not paid your court fees so you can't vote."
then you would consider that to be a perfectly proper situation - right?