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This is for all of you that advance the "collective rights" theory regarding the 2nd amendment.
In the whole of the BoR's all of the amendments are generally believed to be talking about individual rights. And they are applied as such. From the 1st amendment to the 10th amendment, each one is applied as an individual right or in the case of the 10th amendment individual States Rights. Even laws that restrict certain of these rights are applied legally on an individual or individual state basis and not a collective basis.
With the exception of the 2nd Amendment.
So here is my question to you. Why, out of all the amendments in the BoR's, would those that wrote the BoR's write the 2nd Amendment as only being a collective right? And expect it to be applied as such?
To me it makes no sense that those that wrote the BoR's would include a collective right in a document that was designed to protect individuals from the government. Especially when you consider that the government IS the representitive of the collective and not the individual.
In the whole of the BoR's all of the amendments are generally believed to be talking about individual rights. And they are applied as such. From the 1st amendment to the 10th amendment, each one is applied as an individual right or in the case of the 10th amendment individual States Rights. Even laws that restrict certain of these rights are applied legally on an individual or individual state basis and not a collective basis.
With the exception of the 2nd Amendment.
So here is my question to you. Why, out of all the amendments in the BoR's, would those that wrote the BoR's write the 2nd Amendment as only being a collective right? And expect it to be applied as such?
To me it makes no sense that those that wrote the BoR's would include a collective right in a document that was designed to protect individuals from the government. Especially when you consider that the government IS the representitive of the collective and not the individual.